The nurse working on a medical surgical unit is assigned four clients at the start of their shift. What client should be given the highest priority?
A 47-year-old client who reports two loose stools with a serum sodium of 139 mmol/L
A 71-year-old client with a calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL and a negative Trousseau sign
A 52-year-old client with fluid volume excess and BUN of 18 mg/dL
A 60-year-old client with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L and heart palpitations
The Correct Answer is D
A. A 47-year-old client who reports two loose stools with a serum sodium of 139 mmol/L: Although diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, a serum sodium level of 139 mmol/L is within normal range, so this client is not the highest priority.
B. A 71-year-old client with a calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL and a negative Trousseau sign: A calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL is slightly low but not critically low, especially with a negative Trousseau sign. This client is stable compared to others.
C. A 52-year-old client with fluid volume excess and BUN of 18 mg/dL: A BUN of 18 mg/dL indicates mild elevation, and fluid volume excess can be managed with adjustments in treatment; this client does not require immediate priority.
D. A 60-year-old client with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L and heart palpitations: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can cause serious cardiac issues and symptoms like palpitations. This client requires urgent attention to address the potential risk of cardiac complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Tell the client he can no longer have any more pain medication: This is not appropriate. The client’s severe pain needs to be managed, but the current vital signs suggest a need for careful evaluation before administration.
B. Notify the prescribing physician: This is the correct choice. The client's blood pressure and respiratory rate are significantly low, which could be exacerbated by morphine. The physician needs to be informed to reassess pain management and possibly adjust the treatment.
C. Administer half the dose of morphine, 2 mg IV: Given the client's low blood pressure and respiratory rate, any morphine administration could worsen these issues. Adjusting the dose without physician guidance is not appropriate.
D. Administer 4 mg of morphine IV as ordered: Administering the full dose without addressing the client’s low blood pressure and respiratory rate could lead to severe complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Discard the container of formula every 12 hours: While this is important for preventing contamination, it does not directly address the risk of aspiration.
B. Irrigate the tube with sterile water before administering medications: This helps maintain tube patency and prevent clogging but does not significantly impact the prevention of aspiration.
C. Measure & record the residual volume after each feeding: Monitoring residuals is crucial for assessing gastric emptying and preventing overfeeding but does not directly prevent aspiration.
D. Keep head of bed elevated 30 degrees: This is the correct choice. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration by ensuring that gravity helps keep the feeding in the stomach and minimizes the risk of reflux into the esophagus.
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