The nurse working on a medical surgical unit is assigned four clients at the start of their shift. What client should be given the highest priority?
A 47-year-old client who reports two loose stools with a serum sodium of 139 mmol/L
A 71-year-old client with a calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL and a negative Trousseau sign
A 52-year-old client with fluid volume excess and BUN of 18 mg/dL
A 60-year-old client with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L and heart palpitations
The Correct Answer is D
A. A 47-year-old client who reports two loose stools with a serum sodium of 139 mmol/L: Although diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, a serum sodium level of 139 mmol/L is within normal range, so this client is not the highest priority.
B. A 71-year-old client with a calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL and a negative Trousseau sign: A calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL is slightly low but not critically low, especially with a negative Trousseau sign. This client is stable compared to others.
C. A 52-year-old client with fluid volume excess and BUN of 18 mg/dL: A BUN of 18 mg/dL indicates mild elevation, and fluid volume excess can be managed with adjustments in treatment; this client does not require immediate priority.
D. A 60-year-old client with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L and heart palpitations: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can cause serious cardiac issues and symptoms like palpitations. This client requires urgent attention to address the potential risk of cardiac complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Warfarin (Coumadin): This is the correct choice. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. The surgeon needs to be notified to consider holding the medication and to adjust the surgical plan if necessary.
B. Gabapentin (Neurontin): While important for pain management, it does not significantly impact surgical procedures or bleeding risk.
C. Xanax (Alprazolam): This medication is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, which might be relevant for preoperative anxiety but does not require immediate notification of the surgeon.
D. Atenolol (Tenormin): This beta-blocker is used for hypertension and heart conditions but does not require immediate notification of the surgeon unless there are specific cardiac concerns related to surgery.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Abdomen soft, surgical dressing has scant amount of old drainage: A soft abdomen and minimal old drainage from the surgical dressing are expected findings postoperatively. They do not indicate an immediate concern that requires prompt action.
B. Client ambulating with minimal assistance, complaints of occasional nausea: Ambulation and occasional nausea are common and generally expected postoperatively. These findings do not require urgent collaboration with the healthcare provider.
C. Crackles bilaterally in bases of lungs, has incisional pain: Crackles in the lungs can indicate fluid accumulation or atelectasis, which may lead to pneumonia or other respiratory complications. This finding, especially combined with recent surgery, requires prompt evaluation and intervention.
D. Temperature 99.4°F (37.4°C), pulse 100 bpm, bowel sounds present: A slightly elevated temperature and increased pulse are common after surgery. The presence of bowel sounds is a positive sign indicating the return of gastrointestinal function. These findings are not immediately concerning.
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