A client with acute pain is prescribed a sustained-release opioid that is administered every 12 hours. After 6 hours, the client complains of increasing pain that is rated as 9/10. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate to address the client's pain?
Teach the client a relaxation technique to use until the next dose is due.
Obtain an order for an immediate-release opioid for breakthrough pain.
Explain to the client that the medication being administered lasts for 12 hours.
Assess the client's vital signs and administer the next dose of opioids early.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Teach the client a relaxation technique to use until the next dose is due: While relaxation techniques can be helpful in managing pain, they are not sufficient for severe pain rated 9/10. The client requires more immediate pharmacological intervention.
B. Obtain an order for an immediate-release opioid for breakthrough pain: This is the most appropriate action. Immediate-release opioids are specifically used to manage breakthrough pain in clients on sustained-release opioid therapy. It addresses the client's severe pain effectively and promptly.
C. Explain to the client that the medication being administered lasts for 12 hours: Simply explaining the duration of the medication does not address the client's current severe pain. Effective pain management requires action, not just education.
D. Assess the client's vital signs and administer the next dose of opioids early: Administering the next dose early can lead to inappropriate dosing schedules and potential overdose. It is important to follow the prescribed dosing regimen and manage breakthrough pain appropriately.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Capillary refill and depth of peripheral edema: While these assessments are important for evaluating peripheral circulation and fluid status, they are not as immediately critical given the client's new onset of confusion and respiratory symptoms.
B. Abdominal sounds and obtain a BNP level: Assessing abdominal sounds and BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) levels is useful for diagnosing heart failure exacerbations but is secondary to addressing the client's acute confusion and potential electrolyte imbalances.
C. Neurological status and obtain electrolyte levels: This is the correct choice. New onset confusion can be indicative of electrolyte imbalances or acute exacerbations related to heart failure. Monitoring neurological status and electrolyte levels is crucial to address potential causes of confusion and ensure proper treatment.
D. Skin turgor and measure intake & output (I&O): While skin turgor and I&O are relevant for assessing fluid status, the priority should be addressing the acute change in mental status and potential underlying causes such as electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Decrease the TPN rate to 60 ml/hr: Gradually decreasing the TPN rate is a common practice, but it is typically done in conjunction with transitioning to another form of nutrition, not as a standalone order.
B. Replace TPN infusion with an intravenous dextrose solution: This is the correct choice. When weaning off TPN, it is important to prevent hypoglycemia by replacing the TPN with a dextrose solution to maintain blood glucose levels while transitioning to oral or enteral feeding.
C. Begin infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 30 ml/hr: While saline may be used for hydration, it does not address the need to manage blood glucose levels during the transition from TPN.
D. Discontinue TPN infusion: Discontinuing TPN abruptly can lead to complications such as hypoglycemia. It is important to gradually taper off TPN while replacing it with a dextrose solution.
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