The parent of a hospitalized 2-year-old child with viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) asks the nurse why the pediatrician did not prescribe antibiotics. Which response would the nurse make?
The child is too young to receive antibiotics
"Antibiotics are not indicated unless a bacterial infection is present.
The child may be allergic to antibiotics.
The child still has the maternal antibodies from birth and does not need antibiotics
The Correct Answer is B
A. The child is too young to receive antibiotics: This statement doesn't address the actual reason for not prescribing antibiotics for croup, which is primarily due to its viral nature.
B. "Antibiotics are not indicated unless a bacterial infection is present."
Explanation:
Viral laryngotracheobronchitis, commonly known as croup, is typically caused by a viral infection, most commonly by the parainfluenza virus. Antibiotics are not effective against viruses. Therefore, unless a bacterial infection is also present, prescribing antibiotics is not necessary or beneficial in treating croup.
C. The child may be allergic to antibiotics: While antibiotic allergies are a consideration, it doesn't explain why antibiotics are not prescribed for viral illnesses like croup.
D. The child still has the maternal antibodies from birth and does not need antibiotics: Maternal antibodies can offer some protection against infections, but the primary reason for not using antibiotics in viral infections like croup is because antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.
Explanation: A sausage-shaped mass in the upper right abdominal quadrant is more indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not imperforate anus. In Hirschsprung's disease, there is a lack of ganglion cells in the rectum, leading to obstruction and a palpable mass.
B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools.
Explanation: The passage of currant jelly-like stools is characteristic of intussusception, a condition where one portion of the intestine telescopes into another. It is not associated with imperforate anus.
C. Bile-stained fecal emesis.
Explanation: Bile-stained fecal emesis suggests a possible intestinal obstruction or other gastrointestinal issue, but it is not a specific manifestation of imperforate anus. Imperforate anus is primarily characterized by the absence of a normal anal opening.
D. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth.
Explanation:
Imperforate anus refers to a congenital condition in which the opening to the anus is absent or improperly formed. One of the clinical manifestations is the failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth. Meconium is the thick, sticky, greenish-black substance that constitutes a newborn's first stools. The absence of meconium passage suggests a potential obstruction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Ribbon-like stools
Explanation: Ribbon-like or pencil-thin stools are associated with conditions affecting the rectum, such as colorectal cancer, but they are not a typical sign of intussusception.
B. Profuse projectile vomiting
Explanation: Profuse projectile vomiting is not a typical sign of intussusception. Vomiting may occur, but it is not the primary characteristic feature.
C. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
Explanation:
Intussusception is a condition in which one part of the intestine slides into another, causing a blockage. One of the classic signs of intussusception is the presence of "currant jelly" stools, which are characterized by a mixture of bright red blood and mucus in the stools. This occurs due to the compression of the blood vessels in the intestine, leading to bleeding and mucosal discharge.
D. Watery diarrhea
Explanation: Watery diarrhea is not a typical sign of intussusception. The condition is more commonly associated with abdominal pain, vomiting, and the characteristic "currant jelly" stools.
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