The patient asks the nurse what the P Wave indicates on an EKG strip. The nurse informs the patient that the P Wave represents:
The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole)
Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction
Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole)
Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization
The Correct Answer is D
A) The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole):
This refers to the period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, which is associated with the QT interval on the EKG, not the P wave. The P wave specifically relates to atrial depolarization, not the ventricular activity. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, and it’s not directly linked to the P wave, which represents atrial contraction.
B) Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction:
The P wave represents the depolarization (or contraction) of the atria, not the time taken for the impulse to spread to the ventricles. The time taken for the impulse to spread through the atria, across the AV node, and down to the ventricles is better represented by the PR interval, not the P wave itself.
C) Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole):
This describes the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles during systole, not the P wave. The QRS complex shows the electrical activity of the ventricles as they contract, while the P wave relates to atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular contraction.
D) Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization:
The P wave represents the passage of the electrical impulse through the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. Depolarization of the atria results in the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first part of the cardiac cycle on the EKG and reflects the electrical activity that causes atrial contraction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Spironolactone:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Unlike other diuretics, spironolactone works by antagonizing aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. By blocking aldosterone's action, spironolactone prevents the kidneys from excreting potassium, thus increasing potassium levels in the blood (hyperkalemia). Additionally, spironolactone can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels), as it also causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
B) Furosemide:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is typically used in heart failure to remove excess fluid. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the loop of Henle, which increases urine output. While furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to the increased excretion of potassium, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C) Hydrochlorothiazide:
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney, leading to increased urine production. Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the enhanced excretion of both electrolytes.
D) Metolazone:
Metolazone is also a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to hydrochlorothiazide. It can cause hypokalemia and hyponatremia, but like hydrochlorothiazide, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia. Metolazone is more potent than hydrochlorothiazide but still does not carry the risk of hyperkalemia like spironolactone does.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
A) Unilateral facial drooping:
Unilateral facial drooping is the hallmark sign of Bell's palsy, a condition that results from inflammation of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This inflammation causes muscle weakness or paralysis on one side of the face, leading to drooping of the mouth, eyelid, and other facial features on the affected side. The facial drooping may worsen with smiling, closing the eyes, or other facial expressions, making this a key finding in Bell’s palsy.
B) Unilateral arm weakness:
Unilateral arm weakness is not typically associated with Bell's palsy, which specifically affects the facial muscles due to nerve damage. While weakness can occur in other parts of the body due to neurological conditions, it is not a characteristic symptom of Bell’s palsy, which is primarily a cranial nerve issue. Therefore, arm weakness would prompt consideration of other potential neurological causes.
C) Alopecia:
Alopecia, or hair loss, is not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Although it can be seen in many different conditions, it is not typically linked with Bell's palsy, which is a disorder of the facial nerve. Bell’s palsy affects facial muscles, leading to symptoms like drooping or inability to close the eye, but it does not directly cause hair loss.
D) Difficulty swallowing:
Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can occur in Bell's palsy, especially if the facial nerve affects the ability to control the muscles involved in swallowing. This may lead to difficulty with chewing, swallowing, or speaking clearly. While not always severe, dysphagia is a potential complication due to the involvement of the facial nerve, which controls facial muscles essential for these functions.
E) Inability to close the affected eye:
The inability to close the affected eye is a common symptom of Bell's palsy due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi muscle, which is controlled by the facial nerve. This can lead to dryness or irritation of the eye and a risk for corneal damage if the eye is not properly closed or protected. This inability to close the eye is one of the hallmark features of Bell's palsy.
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