The patient with osteoporosis had a spontaneous hip fracture. How would the nurse document this type of fracture?

Open fracture

Pathologic fracture

Oblique fracture

Greenstick fracture

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: An open fracture involves bone piercing the skin, exposing it to the environment, often from high-impact trauma. Osteoporosis causes weakened bones, but a spontaneous hip fracture typically occurs without external trauma or skin breach. This term does not apply, as the fracture results from underlying bone pathology, not an open wound.

Choice B reason: A pathologic fracture occurs in diseased bone, such as in osteoporosis, where reduced bone density causes fragility. A spontaneous hip fracture in this context results from minimal or no trauma, reflecting the weakened bone structure. This documentation accurately describes the fracture’s etiology, linking it to the underlying condition of osteoporosis.

Choice C reason: An oblique fracture describes a diagonal break across the bone, typically from twisting forces. While possible in osteoporosis, the term does not address the spontaneous nature or underlying bone weakness. Pathologic fracture is more specific, as it indicates the fracture’s cause, not just its physical pattern.

Choice D reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break, common in children due to flexible bones, where the bone bends and partially fractures. Osteoporotic hip fractures in adults are typically complete due to brittle bones. This term is inappropriate, as it does not reflect the pathology or spontaneous nature of the injury.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: An oblique fracture involves a diagonal break across the bone, typically from twisting forces, not splintering into multiple pieces. Comminuted fractures, as described, involve multiple fragments. Misidentifying as oblique risks inappropriate treatment, like simple casting instead of surgical fixation, delaying healing and increasing nonunion risk in complex tibial fractures.

Choice B reason: An impacted fracture occurs when bone ends are driven together, often in compression injuries, not splintered into pieces. The described tibial fracture with multiple fragments is comminuted. Assuming impacted misguides management, potentially overlooking the need for surgical stabilization, complicating recovery and alignment in severe fractures.

Choice C reason: A comminuted fracture, where the bone splinters into multiple fragments, matches the x-ray description. Common in high-energy trauma like falls, it requires surgical fixation to align fragments and ensure healing. Accurate identification guides appropriate intervention, preventing complications like malunion or infection in complex tibial fractures.

Choice D reason: A transverse fracture is a straight, horizontal break, not involving multiple fragments. The described splintered tibia indicates a comminuted fracture. Misdiagnosing as transverse risks inadequate treatment, like casting instead of surgery, leading to poor alignment, delayed healing, or chronic pain in severe tibial injuries.

A. Ankylosis. B. Kyphosis. C. Scoliosis. D. Lordosis.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Ankylosis, fusion of spinal joints, is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, not osteoporosis. Osteoporosis causes bone density loss, leading to fractures and deformities like kyphosis, not joint fusion. Expecting ankylosis misaligns assessment, potentially overlooking osteoporosis-related vertebral compression fractures critical for managing mobility and pain in older adults.

Choice B reason: Kyphosis, an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, is common in osteoporosis due to vertebral compression fractures from weakened bones. These fractures collapse anteriorly, causing a hunchback appearance, affecting posture and balance. Recognizing kyphosis guides interventions like bracing or bisphosphonates to prevent further fractures and improve quality of life.

Choice C reason: Scoliosis, lateral spine curvature, is typically congenital or idiopathic, not directly caused by osteoporosis. While osteoporosis may exacerbate existing scoliosis through fractures, it’s not a primary deformity. Expecting scoliosis risks misdiagnosis, diverting focus from osteoporosis-related kyphosis and its management, like calcium supplementation or physical therapy.

Choice D reason: Lordosis, exaggerated lumbar curvature, is not typical in osteoporosis. Osteoporosis primarily affects thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis from compression fractures. Lordosis may occur in other conditions like muscular imbalances, but expecting it in osteoporosis misguides assessment, delaying interventions for fracture prevention and spinal stability in older adults.

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The patient with osteoporosis had a spontaneous hip fracture. How would the nurse document this type of fracture?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a fractured tibia as a result of a fall. The client’s x-ray shows that the bone is splintered into several pieces around the shaft. The nurse should identify that the client has which of the following types of fractures?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is assessing an older adult client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following spinal deformities should the nurse expect to find in the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The patient with osteoporosis had a spontaneous hip fracture. How would the nurse document this type of fracture?

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