The physician suspects a client has a dermatological infection. Which of the following diagnostics will be ordered to observe color changes to the skin using an ultraviolet light source?
Culture
KOH
Diascopy
Wood's
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Culture is not a diagnostic test that uses an ultraviolet light source, but a laboratory test that involves growing microorganisms from a sample of body fluid or tissue. Culture can help identify the type and sensitivity of the infection-causing agent.
Choice B Reason: KOH is not a diagnostic test that uses an ultraviolet light source, but a chemical test that involves applying potassium hydroxide to a sample of skin, hair, or nail. KOH can help diagnose fungal infections by dissolving the keratin and revealing the fungal elements under a microscope.
Choice C Reason: Diascopy is not a diagnostic test that uses an ultraviolet light source, but a physical test that involves applying pressure to a lesion with a glass slide or lens. Diascopy can help differentiate between blanchable and non-blanchable lesions, such as erythema or petechiae.
Choice D Reason: Wood's is a diagnostic test that uses an ultraviolet light source, also known as a Wood's lamp or black light. Wood's can help observe color changes to the skin that are not visible under normal light, such as fluorescence or hypopigmentation. Wood's can help diagnose conditions such as tinea capitis, vitiligo, or erythrasma.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because laceration is not an acute traumatic brain injury, but a type of wound that involves tearing or cutting of the skin or other tissues. Laceration can occur as a result of a motor vehicle accident, but it does not cause changes in the GCS or pupil size. The nurse should assess the client's skin for any signs of laceration, such as bleeding, swelling, or infection.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because acute subdural hematoma is not likely to cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Acute subdural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, which are two layers of the meninges that cover the brain. An acute subdural hematoma can cause a rapid decrease in the GCS, but it usually causes a dilated pupil on the same side as the injury, not on the opposite side.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because intracerebral hemorrhage is not likely to cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Intracerebral hemorrhage is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself. Intracerebral hemorrhage can cause a gradual decrease in the GCS, but it usually causes neurological deficits that correspond to the location of the bleeding, such as weakness, numbness, or aphasia, not pupillary changes.
Choice D reason: This is correct because epidural hematoma can cause a dilated pupil on the left side. Epidural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury that involves bleeding between the dura mater and the skull. Epidural hematoma can cause a lucid interval, which is a period of normal consciousness followed by a sudden decrease in the GCS, and a dilated pupil on the opposite side of the injury, due to compression of the third cranial nerve. The nurse should notify the provider immediately and prepare for emergency surgery.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
