The practical nurse (PN) administers filgrastim subcutaneous to a client with neutropenia. The client becomes troubled with bone pain. Which action should the PN take?
Reassure the client that neutropenia often causes bone pain
Prepare a variance report about the onset of pain after injection
Plan to administer the next dose at an alternate injection site
Offer to administer a prescribed PRN analgesic to the client
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Reassuring that neutropenia causes bone pain is incorrect, as the pain is a side effect of filgrastim, not neutropenia. Filgrastim stimulates bone marrow, causing medullary expansion and pain. Misattributing the cause fails to address the drug’s effect, making this choice inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Preparing a variance report is unnecessary, as bone pain is a known filgrastim side effect, not an error. Filgrastim increases neutrophil production, stressing bone marrow and causing pain. Reporting is not the priority; managing the client’s discomfort is more immediate and appropriate.
Choice C reason: Changing the injection site does not alleviate bone pain, as it results from filgrastim’s systemic effect on bone marrow stimulation, not local irritation. Pain is due to increased hematopoiesis in marrow, not the injection itself, making this choice ineffective for addressing the symptom.
Choice D reason: Offering a PRN analgesic addresses bone pain, a common filgrastim side effect caused by bone marrow expansion from stimulated neutrophil production. Analgesics relieve discomfort without altering the drug’s therapeutic effect, making this the most appropriate action to improve client comfort and adherence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eating aged cheeses, high in tyramine, is relevant for monoamine oxidase inhibitors, not TCAs, which do not interact with tyramine. This dietary habit does not affect TCA-related sleep disturbances, making it irrelevant for addressing the client’s early morning awakening.
Choice B reason: Taking a warm bath at night may promote relaxation but does not directly address TCA-related sleep issues. While helpful for general sleep hygiene, it is less critical than medication timing, which directly influences TCA’s stimulatory effects on sleep patterns.
Choice C reason: Dry mouth is a common TCA side effect due to anticholinergic properties but is not directly linked to sleep disturbances. It may cause discomfort but does not explain or address early morning awakening, making this information less relevant for sleep improvement.
Choice D reason: Taking TCAs upon rising can cause insomnia, as their stimulatory effects peak during sleep hours. TCAs increase norepinephrine, disrupting sleep architecture. Adjusting to bedtime dosing may reduce early morning awakening, making this information critical for optimizing sleep and therapeutic outcomes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ankle circumference monitors edema, which mannitol reduces by drawing fluid from tissues. However, this is secondary to urinary output, as mannitol’s primary action is diuresis, increasing urine production to reduce intracranial or intraocular pressure, making edema measurement less critical.
Choice B reason: Heart rate is relevant for overall monitoring but not the primary outcome for mannitol, which acts as an osmotic diuretic. Cardiovascular effects are secondary, and mannitol’s efficacy is better assessed by urine output, which directly reflects its diuretic mechanism.
Choice C reason: Dietary intake is unrelated to mannitol’s therapeutic effect. Mannitol pulls fluid into the bloodstream, increasing urine output, not influenced by diet. Monitoring intake may be relevant for other conditions, but it is not critical for assessing mannitol’s diuretic action.
Choice D reason: Urinary output is the most important outcome, as mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, increases urine production by drawing fluid into the renal tubules, reducing intracranial or intraocular pressure. Adequate output (e.g., >30 mL/hour) confirms efficacy, preventing fluid overload or renal complications.
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