A client with overactive bladder starts a new prescription for oxybutynin. When assessing the client prior to medication administration, which finding should the practical nurse (PN) report to the charge nurse?
Less frequent urinary incontinence
Diminished urinary urgency
Decreased urinary output
Reduced urinary frequency
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Less frequent urinary incontinence is a desired effect of oxybutynin, an antimuscarinic that relaxes bladder muscles, reducing involuntary contractions. This indicates therapeutic success in managing overactive bladder, not a concern requiring reporting, as it aligns with the drug’s intended action.
Choice B reason: Diminished urinary urgency is an expected outcome of oxybutynin, which inhibits bladder spasms by blocking acetylcholine receptors. This reduces the urge to urinate, improving overactive bladder symptoms, and does not warrant reporting, as it reflects the medication’s efficacy.
Choice C reason: Decreased urinary output is concerning, as oxybutynin’s anticholinergic effects may cause urinary retention by overly relaxing the bladder. This risks bladder distension or infection, requiring reporting to assess for obstruction or adjust dosing, making this the critical finding to address.
Choice D reason: Reduced urinary frequency is a therapeutic effect of oxybutynin, which decreases bladder contractions, allowing longer intervals between urination. This is a goal of overactive bladder treatment and does not require reporting, as it indicates the drug is working as intended.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking medications with food may reduce gastric irritation but does not prevent anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, which are immune-mediated. This advice is irrelevant for avoiding future allergic responses, as it does not address the systemic hypersensitivity triggered by penicillin exposure.
Choice B reason: A medic alert bracelet is critical for a client with a penicillin anaphylaxis history, as it alerts healthcare providers to avoid penicillin, preventing potentially fatal allergic reactions. Anaphylaxis involves IgE-mediated histamine release, and re-exposure risks rapid, life-threatening symptoms, making this the most important instruction.
Choice C reason: Keeping epinephrine is useful for managing anaphylaxis but is secondary to prevention. A medic alert bracelet proactively avoids penicillin exposure, reducing the need for emergency intervention. Epinephrine treats symptoms but does not address the root cause of re-exposure risk.
Choice D reason: Taking all prescribed ampicillin is dangerous, as the client had an anaphylactic reaction, indicating a severe allergy. Continuing the drug risks recurrent, potentially fatal reactions. This choice is incorrect, as it contradicts the need to avoid the allergen entirely.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking the spouse why the client is outside is irrelevant to the clinical concern. Fluoroquinolones cause photosensitivity, increasing sunburn risk. The focus should be on protecting the client from UV exposure, not investigating their location, making this choice unhelpful for addressing the drug’s side effect.
Choice B reason: Notifying the supervisor about an improved condition is premature and unrelated to the client being outdoors. Sitting outside does not indicate recovery, and the priority is addressing photosensitivity from fluoroquinolones, which risks skin damage, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: Fluoroquinolones, like ciprofloxacin, increase photosensitivity by sensitizing skin to UV light, causing severe sunburn or rash. Reminding the client to use sunblock and protective clothing prevents dermal damage during sunlight exposure, directly addressing the drug’s side effect and ensuring safety.
Choice D reason: Encouraging staying indoors is overly restrictive and impractical. Photosensitivity can be managed with sunblock and clothing, allowing safe outdoor activity. This choice unnecessarily limits the client’s mobility, as proper precautions effectively mitigate the risk of UV-related skin damage.
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