The practical nurse (PN) receives prescriptions from the healthcare provider. Click to highlight the 3 prescriptions that the PN should perform right away.
A. Acetaminophen 600 mg PO every 6 hours PRN for pain or temperature greater than 100° F (37.7° C)
B. Contact precautions
C. Vancomycin 500 mg IV piggyback every 6 hours
D. Place peripheral IV
E. Change turban dressing by cleansing with sterile water, patting dry, applying dry gauze over incision, and wrapping head with kerlix
F. Strict intake and output
G. Clear liquid diet
Acetaminophen 600 mg PO every 6 hours PRN for pain or temperature greater than 100° F (37.7° C)
Contact precautions
Vancomycin 500 mg IV piggyback every 6 hours
Place peripheral IV
Change turban dressing by cleansing with sterile water, patting dry, applying dry gauze over incision, and wrapping head with kerlix
Strict intake and output
Clear liquid diet
The Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
A. Acetaminophen 600 mg PO every 6 hours PRN for pain or temperature greater than 100° F (37.7° C)
While acetaminophen is necessary for managing fever or pain, it is a PRN medication, meaning it is only given based on specific symptoms (temperature greater than 100°F or pain). Immediate administration is not required unless the client’s symptoms meet these criteria.
B. Contact precautions
Contact precautions are crucial for preventing the spread of MRSA, a highly contagious pathogen. Immediate implementation is necessary to protect both the client and others in the healthcare setting from infection.
C. Vancomycin 500 mg IV piggyback every 6 hours
Vancomycin is prescribed to treat the MRSA infection. It should be administered as ordered to manage the infection effectively and prevent complications from the surgical site infection.
D. Place peripheral IV
The peripheral IV has already been placed, as indicated by the notes. This action would have been necessary before starting the IV medication orders but is not an immediate task at this time.
E. Change turban dressing by cleansing with sterile water, patting dry, applying dry gauze over incision, and wrapping head with kerlix
Changing the turban dressing is necessary to manage the infection at the surgical site. This must be done according to the prescribed procedure to maintain sterile conditions and support healing.
F. Strict intake and output
While monitoring intake and output is important, it does not need to be done immediately but should be started as per the order to monitor the client’s fluid balance over time.
G. Clear liquid diet
Initiating a clear liquid diet is important for nutritional support, but it does not need to be started immediately. It is part of the general care plan but does not have the same urgency as infection control and medication administration
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
A. Heart rate 99 beats/minute
A heart rate of 99 beats/minute is slightly elevated. Tachycardia can be a sign of fluid volume deficit, as the body compensates for decreased blood volume and pressure by increasing heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion.
B. Dark, yellow urine
Dark yellow urine indicates concentrated urine, which is a sign of dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Proper hydration would typically result in light yellow urine.
C. Urinated 30 mL
A urine output of 30 mL is low, especially for an adult in a 1-hour period. Low urine output can be a sign of fluid volume deficit, as the kidneys may not be excreting enough urine due to inadequate fluid intake or retention.
D. Temperature 101° F (38.3° C)
An elevated temperature indicates a fever, which is related to the infection (pneumonia) rather than fluid volume status. It does not directly indicate a fluid volume deficit.
E. Client is awake and alert
Being awake and alert indicates that the client’s neurological status is stable and is not indicative of fluid volume deficit. It does not reflect the client’s fluid volume status.
F. Blood pressure 115/71 mm Hg
A blood pressure of 115/71 mm Hg is within normal limits. While fluid volume deficits can affect blood pressure, this finding alone does not indicate a deficit since the blood pressure is stable.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Understanding the client’s current and previous sleep habits and cycles is the most foundational step for assessing sleep disturbances. This information provides a baseline from which the PN can identify patterns and deviations in the client’s sleep behavior.
B. While evening meal and snacking habits can affect sleep, they are secondary to understanding the client’s overall sleep habits and cycles. These habits are part of a broader assessment but not the initial focus.
C. Identifying symptoms resulting from sleep disturbances is important but follows after understanding the client’s sleep history. Symptoms are a result of disturbances, and their identification is based on a foundational understanding of sleep patterns.
D. Exploring new sleep routines the client is considering is part of the intervention phase but comes after understanding current sleep patterns and disturbances. The initial focus should be on gathering comprehensive sleep history.
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