Tylenol with Codeine 1T is equivalent to how many mL?
15.5 mL
15 mL
40 mL
30 mL
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Tylenol with Codeine (acetaminophen and codeine) in tablet form (1T) typically refers to a standard dose, but in liquid form, the concentration varies. Assuming a common elixir (120 mg acetaminophen/12 mg codeine per 5 mL), 15 mL delivers the standard dose. 15.5 mL slightly exceeds this, risking overdose and potential hepatotoxicity from acetaminophen, making it incorrect.
Choice B reason: Tylenol with Codeine elixir is commonly 120 mg acetaminophen and 12 mg codeine per 5 mL. One tablet equivalent (1T) typically corresponds to 15 mL, delivering 360 mg acetaminophen and 36 mg codeine, aligning with standard dosing for pain relief. This volume ensures therapeutic efficacy without exceeding safe limits, matching pharmacological guidelines.
Choice C reason: A 40 mL dose of Tylenol with Codeine elixir (120 mg acetaminophen/12 mg codeine per 5 mL) would deliver 960 mg acetaminophen and 96 mg codeine, far exceeding safe single-dose limits. This risks acetaminophen-induced liver toxicity and opioid-related respiratory depression, as it disrupts the therapeutic window, making this choice scientifically inappropriate.
Choice D reason: A 30 mL dose of Tylenol with Codeine elixir (120 mg acetaminophen/12 mg codeine per 5 mL) provides 720 mg acetaminophen and 72 mg codeine, doubling a typical single dose. This excessive amount increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and opioid side effects like sedation or respiratory depression, rendering it unsuitable for standard administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Orientation to person but disorientation to place and time occurs in both delirium and dementia. In delirium, acute cerebral dysfunction from causes like infection disrupts attention, while dementia’s gradual hippocampal loss affects memory. This symptom is non-specific, as it does not distinguish the acute onset critical to delirium diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Fragmented, incoherent speech can occur in delirium due to acute brain dysfunction or in advanced dementia from cortical degeneration. It reflects disrupted neural communication but is not specific to delirium’s rapid onset. This symptom alone does not differentiate the conditions, as both involve cognitive processing deficits.
Choice C reason: A history of increasing confusion over years indicates dementia, characterized by progressive neuronal loss, particularly in Alzheimer’s or vascular dementia. Delirium, conversely, has an acute onset due to reversible causes like infection. This chronic history rules out delirium, making this choice incorrect for identifying delirium.
Choice D reason: Being oriented and alert on admission, then developing confusion, indicates delirium’s acute onset, typically from pneumonia-related hypoxia or sepsis disrupting cerebral metabolism. Unlike dementia’s gradual progression, delirium’s rapid cognitive decline, often within days, reflects reversible brain dysfunction, making this the key differentiator in diagnosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Previous psychiatric history increases PTSD risk, as pre-existing conditions like depression or anxiety indicate heightened amygdala sensitivity and dysregulated stress responses. These predispose individuals to exaggerated fear responses post-trauma, as the brain’s stress circuitry is already compromised, amplifying the impact of traumatic events on neural pathways.
Choice B reason: PTSD is not associated only with personal characteristics; it requires exposure to a traumatic event, as defined by DSM-5 criteria. Trauma triggers neurobiological changes, including amygdala hyperactivity and hippocampal volume reduction, causing symptoms like flashbacks. Personal characteristics modulate risk, but event exposure is essential, making this statement false.
Choice C reason: A causative trauma is required for PTSD, per DSM-5, involving exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence. This triggers neurobiological changes, such as elevated cortisol and amygdala activation, leading to intrusive memories and hyperarousal. This criterion is fundamental to the disorder’s pathophysiology and diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Lack of social support increases PTSD risk, as it exacerbates stress responses by reducing oxytocin-mediated emotional regulation and prefrontal cortex modulation. Social isolation heightens amygdala activity, prolonging trauma-related symptoms. Support systems buffer stress responses, making this a scientifically valid factor in the etiology of PTSD.
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