The nurse is caring for a client admitted with severe exacerbation of posttraumatic stress disorder that is experiencing flashbacks and hypervigilance. Which is the priority for the nurse to address when caring for this client?
Promote the client’s safety
Help to promote the client's self-esteem
Help the client cope with stress and emotions
Establish a support system in the client's community
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: In severe PTSD exacerbation, flashbacks and hypervigilance indicate amygdala hyperactivity and impaired prefrontal cortex regulation, increasing risk of impulsive or self-harming behaviors. Ensuring safety addresses immediate dangers, as heightened arousal can lead to disorientation or panic, necessitating a secure environment to stabilize the client’s neurobiological stress response.
Choice B reason: Promoting self-esteem is valuable in PTSD but secondary to safety. Low self-esteem may stem from trauma-related guilt, linked to serotonin dysregulation, but does not pose immediate risk. Flashbacks and hypervigilance, driven by amygdala overactivity, require urgent safety measures to prevent harm during acute episodes.
Choice C reason: Helping cope with stress and emotions is important in PTSD management, addressing cortisol dysregulation and amygdala hyperactivity. However, during severe exacerbation with flashbacks, safety is the priority, as acute episodes can lead to disorientation or self-harm. Coping strategies are secondary to stabilizing the immediate neurobiological crisis.
Choice D reason: Establishing a community support system aids long-term PTSD recovery by enhancing oxytocin-mediated emotional regulation. However, during acute exacerbation with flashbacks, immediate safety is critical due to heightened amygdala-driven arousal. Community support is a secondary intervention, as it does not address the urgent risk of harm in acute episodes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Offering dessert to stop yelling uses bargaining, not distraction, and may reinforce agitation in Alzheimer’s, where cortical and amygdala damage impairs emotional regulation. This approach risks escalating distress by focusing on the behavior, which the client cannot control due to neurocognitive deficits, making it ineffective.
Choice B reason: Asking if the client wants to finish the meal focuses on the agitation’s context, potentially worsening distress in Alzheimer’s due to impaired reasoning from cortical degeneration. This confrontational approach does not redirect attention, failing to leverage preserved procedural memory, which distraction techniques use to calm neurobiological agitation.
Choice C reason: Suggesting to watch television is a distraction technique, redirecting attention from agitation triggers in Alzheimer’s. By engaging preserved sensory and procedural memory, it reduces amygdala-driven emotional distress without confronting cognitive deficits, aligning with neurobiological strategies to manage agitation and promote calm in dementia care.
Choice D reason: Stating misunderstanding focuses on the client’s communication deficits, likely increasing frustration in Alzheimer’s due to hippocampal and cortical damage. This does not distract from agitation triggers and may exacerbate distress, as the client cannot process or correct their behavior, making it an ineffective response compared to redirection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Tylenol with Codeine (acetaminophen and codeine) in tablet form (1T) typically refers to a standard dose, but in liquid form, the concentration varies. Assuming a common elixir (120 mg acetaminophen/12 mg codeine per 5 mL), 15 mL delivers the standard dose. 15.5 mL slightly exceeds this, risking overdose and potential hepatotoxicity from acetaminophen, making it incorrect.
Choice B reason: Tylenol with Codeine elixir is commonly 120 mg acetaminophen and 12 mg codeine per 5 mL. One tablet equivalent (1T) typically corresponds to 15 mL, delivering 360 mg acetaminophen and 36 mg codeine, aligning with standard dosing for pain relief. This volume ensures therapeutic efficacy without exceeding safe limits, matching pharmacological guidelines.
Choice C reason: A 40 mL dose of Tylenol with Codeine elixir (120 mg acetaminophen/12 mg codeine per 5 mL) would deliver 960 mg acetaminophen and 96 mg codeine, far exceeding safe single-dose limits. This risks acetaminophen-induced liver toxicity and opioid-related respiratory depression, as it disrupts the therapeutic window, making this choice scientifically inappropriate.
Choice D reason: A 30 mL dose of Tylenol with Codeine elixir (120 mg acetaminophen/12 mg codeine per 5 mL) provides 720 mg acetaminophen and 72 mg codeine, doubling a typical single dose. This excessive amount increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and opioid side effects like sedation or respiratory depression, rendering it unsuitable for standard administration.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
