What eye function is the nurse preparing to assess when the client is asked to stand 20 feet from a specific chart that is mounted on the examination room wall?
Peripheral vision.
External eye structures.
Distant vision.
Near vision.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Peripheral vision is the ability to see objects and movement outside of the direct line of vision. This type of vision is assessed using different methods, such as confrontation visual field testing, where the examiner moves objects into the patient's side vision from different angles. Standing 20 feet away from a chart would not be the appropriate method to assess peripheral vision.
Choice B reason:
The assessment of external eye structures involves examining the physical appearance and condition of the eyelids, sclera, conjunctiva, and surrounding areas. This is typically done at a close range and does not require the patient to stand at a distance from a chart. The nurse would inspect these structures directly, often with the aid of a penlight for better visibility.
Choice C reason:
Distant vision is the ability to see objects far away, and it is what the nurse is preparing to assess when the client is asked to stand 20 feet from a chart. This distance is standard for the Snellen eye chart, which is used to measure visual acuity. The chart has rows of letters that decrease in size, and the patient is asked to read the smallest line of letters they can see clearly. The Snellen chart is the most common method used by eye doctors to measure visual acuity.
Choice D reason:
Near vision is the ability to see objects that are close to the eyes clearly. It is assessed using different charts, such as the Jaeger eye chart, which contains blocks of text in various type sizes. The patient is asked to read the text at a close range, typically around 14 inches, not 20 feet. Therefore, standing 20 feet away from a chart would not be the method to assess near vision.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A formal hearing test, or audiometry, is the most comprehensive method for assessing hearing loss, which can be a side effect of ototoxic medications. These tests can detect both conductive and sensorineural hearing loss, providing a detailed profile of hearing function across different frequencies. For clients receiving ototoxic antibiotics, regular monitoring through formal hearing tests is recommended to detect any early signs of hearing impairment and to implement timely interventions.
Choice B reason:
The rubbing fingers test is a rudimentary hearing screening method where the examiner rubs their fingers together near the patient's ear, asking them to indicate when they hear the sound. While this test can be used as a quick check for hearing loss, it is not as sensitive or specific as formal audiometry and may not detect early or mild hearing loss caused by ototoxic drugs.
Choice C reason:
Tuning fork tests, such as the Weber and Rinne tests, are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. These tests can be useful in a clinical setting to provide immediate information about the type of hearing loss; however, they are not as comprehensive as formal hearing tests and may not be sufficient for monitoring ototoxicity.
Choice D reason:
The whisper hearing test involves the examiner whispering words or numbers and asking the patient to repeat them. This test can be useful for detecting significant hearing loss but may not be sensitive enough to detect the early stages of ototoxicity. Moreover, the test's accuracy can be affected by the examiner's voice level and the testing environment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is d) Stage II.
Choice a reason:
Stage IV pressure ulcers are the most severe, with full-thickness skin loss and exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Signs of stage IV include large-scale tissue loss, possibly including slough or eschar, and may include undermining and tunneling. The scenario described does not indicate such an advanced stage, as there is no mention of exposed deeper tissues or structures.
Choice b reason:
Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss, potentially affecting subcutaneous tissue but not extending to underlying muscle or bone. The wound may have a crater-like appearance. The described condition does not match stage III, as there is no indication of the ulcer extending into subcutaneous tissue.
Choice c reason:
Stage I pressure ulcers present with intact skin and non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. The skin may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler compared to adjacent tissue. In the given scenario, the skin is not intact, ruling out stage I.
Choice d reason:
Stage II pressure ulcers are characterized by partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. They may also present as intact or ruptured blisters. The description of the skin condition with erythema, serosanguineous drainage, and a blister-like appearance aligns with a stage II pressure ulcer.
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