What might the nurse explain as a common treatment for amblyopia?
Patching the good eye to force the brain to use the affected eye
Patching the affected eye to allow the refractory muscles to rest
Using corticosteroids to treat inflammation of the optic nerve
Using glasses that will slightly blur the image for the good eye
The Correct Answer is A
A. Amblyopia occurs when one eye has weaker vision than the other due to abnormal visual development early in life. Patching the good eye helps to encourage the brain to rely more on the weaker eye, stimulating its visual development. This treatment aims to improve vision in the affected eye and restore visual acuity.

B. Patching the affected eye is not a common treatment for amblyopia. In fact, patching the affected eye would further decrease visual input to that eye and could potentially exacerbate the condition. The goal of treatment for amblyopia is to strengthen the weaker eye by encouraging its use, rather than resting it.
C. Corticosteroids are not typically used to treat amblyopia unless there is a specific underlying condition causing inflammation of the optic nerve. Amblyopia is primarily a developmental issue rather than an inflammatory condition, so corticosteroids would not be the first-line treatment for this condition.
D. This is not a common treatment for amblyopia. In fact, the goal of treatment for amblyopia is to improve vision in the affected eye, not to intentionally blur the vision in the good eye. Glasses prescribed for amblyopia typically aim to correct refractive errors (such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism) and provide clear vision to both eyes, which can help support visual development in the weaker eye.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Salicylates, such as aspirin, should be avoided in children and adolescents with viral symptoms due to the association with Reye's syndrome. Instead, acetaminophen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) without salicylates should be used for fever and pain relief.
A. Reye's syndrome typically presents with symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and lethargy. However, there isn't a specific test for Reye's syndrome itself. Diagnosis is often based on clinical symptoms, history of aspirin use, and laboratory findings.
B. Reye's syndrome is associated with the use of aspirin (salicylates) in children and adolescents with viral infections, particularly influenza and chickenpox. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is recommended instead of aspirin for fever and pain relief in children with viral illnesses.
D. There isn't a specific vaccine for Reye's syndrome. Reye's syndrome is not caused by an infectious agent that can be prevented through vaccination.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. A high-pitched cry, often described as a "crying in pain" or "irritable cry," can be a characteristic sign of meningitis in infants. The cry may sound different from the infant's usual cry and may be associated with irritability, discomfort, or pain. It can be indicative of increased intracranial pressure and neurological irritation caused by the inflammation of the meninges.
A. Constipation is not typically associated with meningitis in infants. Meningitis is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, which can cause symptoms such as fever, irritability, poor feeding, vomiting, and lethargy.
B. A depressed anterior fontanel (sunken soft spot on the baby's head) is not a typical manifestation of meningitis. Meningitis may cause signs of increased intracranial pressure, such as a bulging fontanel, rather than a depressed fontanel.
C. he presence of the rooting reflex is not specific to meningitis. The rooting reflex is a normal reflex present in infants, where they turn their head toward a stimulus (such as stroking the cheek or corner of the mouth) in search of nourishment (typically the breast or bottle).
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