What might the nurse explain as a common treatment for amblyopia?
Patching the good eye to force the brain to use the affected eye
Patching the affected eye to allow the refractory muscles to rest
Using corticosteroids to treat inflammation of the optic nerve
Using glasses that will slightly blur the image for the good eye
The Correct Answer is A
A. Amblyopia occurs when one eye has weaker vision than the other due to abnormal visual development early in life. Patching the good eye helps to encourage the brain to rely more on the weaker eye, stimulating its visual development. This treatment aims to improve vision in the affected eye and restore visual acuity.

B. Patching the affected eye is not a common treatment for amblyopia. In fact, patching the affected eye would further decrease visual input to that eye and could potentially exacerbate the condition. The goal of treatment for amblyopia is to strengthen the weaker eye by encouraging its use, rather than resting it.
C. Corticosteroids are not typically used to treat amblyopia unless there is a specific underlying condition causing inflammation of the optic nerve. Amblyopia is primarily a developmental issue rather than an inflammatory condition, so corticosteroids would not be the first-line treatment for this condition.
D. This is not a common treatment for amblyopia. In fact, the goal of treatment for amblyopia is to improve vision in the affected eye, not to intentionally blur the vision in the good eye. Glasses prescribed for amblyopia typically aim to correct refractive errors (such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism) and provide clear vision to both eyes, which can help support visual development in the weaker eye.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. The narrowing of the aorta results in increased resistance to blood flow beyond the constriction, leading to decreased blood pressure in the lower body, including the legs. As a result, the blood pressure in the arms may be significantly higher than in the legs, creating a notable blood pressure gradient between the upper and lower extremities.
A. Pulmonary edema is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta involves a narrowing of the aortic arch, typically occurring after the branching of the vessels supplying the upper body.
C. Severe cyanosis is not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygenation of the blood, is more commonly seen in conditions affecting pulmonary circulation or oxygenation of the blood, such as congenital heart defects involving right-to-left shunting of blood.
D. A machine-like murmur is not a typical finding in coarctation of the aorta. The characteristic murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta is a systolic ejection murmur heard best over the back or left axilla.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Reye's syndrome is characterized by swelling of the brain (cerebral edema), which can lead to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Monitoring for signs of increased ICP, such as changes in level of consciousness, headache, vomiting, and altered pupil size and reactivity, is crucial for early detection and intervention to prevent neurological deterioration.
A. Reye's syndrome primarily affects the liver and brain, leading to liver dysfunction and encephalopathy. While renal involvement can occur in some cases, the priority complication typically relates to liver dysfunction and neurological manifestations rather than renal impairment.
C. Hyperglycemia may be present due to liver dysfunction and altered glucose metabolism, but it is not the primary concern compared to neurological complications and hepatic failure.
D. Reye's syndrome is not caused by a bacterial infection; it is typically associated with viral illnesses, particularly influenza and varicella (chickenpox).
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