When assessing a client's level of consciousness, the nurse determines that the client is alert and ambulatory, but confused. Which follow- up assessment should the nurse complete next?

Complete a mental status exam.

Attempt to elicit a pain response.

Check for a Babinski reflex.

Assess pupillary accommodation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   A mental status exam is a comprehensive assessment tool used to evaluate various aspects of cognitive function, including orientation, memory, attention, language, and higher cognitive functions. Given that the client is confused, a mental status exam is highly relevant to understand the scope of the confusion, identify possible underlying issues, and provide a baseline for further evaluation and treatment.
B.   Eliciting a pain response is typically used to assess responsiveness in patients who are not fully conscious or are unresponsive. Since the client is described as alert and ambulatory, attempting to elicit a pain response is not the most appropriate next step. This action is more suited for assessing levels of consciousness in patients who are less responsive or in coma-like states.
C.   The Babinski reflex is a neurological test where the sole of the foot is stroked to assess the presence of an abnormal reflex response. In adults, the presence of the Babinski reflex may indicate neurological damage. This test is more specialized and less relevant for a general assessment of confusion.
D.   Assessing pupillary accommodation involves checking how well the pupils adjust to changes in light and focus. While this is an important part of a neurological assessment, it is not the most direct approach to addressing confusion. Pupillary responses are generally assessed alongside other neurological evaluations but do not specifically address the cognitive or confusion aspects of the mental status.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. The client’s current symptoms—pain, significant leg edema, and swelling—are more pressing and suggest a need to evaluate the physical cause of these symptoms rather than focusing immediately on mental status.
B. Obtaining a blood alcohol level might be relevant if there is a suspicion that recent alcohol use is contributing to the client’s condition or affecting his overall health. However, the primary concern in this case is the significant edema and pain in the left leg.
C. This is the most pertinent action to take first. The client’s symptoms of severe edema and pain in one leg, along with a history of CVA and alcohol abuse, raise concerns about possible causes such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), infection, or trauma. Inspecting the legs for signs of infection or trauma (bruising, cuts) is crucial to determine the underlying cause of the symptoms and guide appropriate treatment.

D. While excessive salt intake can contribute to fluid retention and edema, the degree of swelling described (4+ pitting edema) and the localized nature of the problem in the left leg make it less likely that dietary salt alone is the cause.

A. Dyspnea. B. Peripheral edema. C. Intercostal retractions. D. Headaches. E. Jugular venous distension.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A. Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of heart failure exacerbation. It occurs because the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to pulmonary congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs. This symptom is significant in confirming an exacerbation of heart failure.
B. Peripheral edema, or swelling of the legs and ankles, is another common sign of heart failure exacerbation. It results from fluid buildup due to the heart's decreased ability to manage blood volume effectively. This finding is indicative of fluid retention and can confirm an exacerbation of heart failure.
C. Intercostal retractions are typically seen in respiratory distress, especially in conditions affecting the lungs or severe respiratory conditions. While they can occur with severe pulmonary congestion in heart failure, they are more directly associated with respiratory issues rather than specifically confirming heart failure exacerbation.
D. Headaches are not a typical or primary symptom of heart failure exacerbation. They can be associated with various conditions but are not specific to heart failure. This symptom is less relevant in confirming an exacerbation of heart failure.
E. Jugular venous distension is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure or fluid overload. It occurs when there is increased pressure in the venous system due to the heart's inability to handle blood volume effectively.

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When assessing a client's level of consciousness, the nurse determines that the client is alert and ambulatory, but confused. Which follow- up assessment should the nurse complete next?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An older adult client with a history of heart failure (HF) is brought to the clinic by a family member. Which finding(s) confirm to the nurse that the client is experiencing an exacerbation of the HP? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

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Which method should the nurse use to assess response to painful stimuli for a client with a marked reduction in the level of consciousness (LOC)?

Patient Data Exhibits

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