The nurse assesses a client with a sleep pattern disturbance. In developing a plan of care, what assessment data should the nurse obtain first?

History of seasonal allergies and nasal congestion.

Amount and type of caffeinated drinks before bedtime.

Urinary frequency and episodes of nocturia.

Usual bed time and time of awakenings.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   A history of seasonal allergies and nasal congestion can affect sleep quality due to discomfort or breathing difficulties. While this information is relevant for identifying possible physical factors that might influence sleep, it is not the first piece of data to obtain when trying to understand the overall sleep pattern.
B.   The consumption of caffeinated drinks before bedtime can significantly impact sleep quality. Caffeine is a stimulant that can disrupt sleep patterns and contribute to difficulty falling asleep. This assessment is important, but it should follow an initial understanding of the client’s overall sleep schedule and habits to determine how much caffeine might be affecting their sleep.
C.   Urinary frequency and nocturia (waking up frequently to urinate during the night) can interfere with sleep and contribute to disturbances. This information is valuable for identifying potential causes of disrupted sleep but is typically assessed after understanding the client’s basic sleep patterns and schedule.
D.   Understanding the client’s usual bedtime and time of awakenings provides essential information about their sleep schedule and overall sleep patterns. This data is crucial as it establishes a baseline for assessing the client’s sleep routine and helps identify any deviations or irregularities in their sleep behavior.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A grade IV systolic murmur is considered loud and may be associated with a palpable thrill. In mitral valve regurgitation, the murmur is often best heard at the apex of the heart. A thrill, which is a vibration felt on the chest wall, is a sign of a more significant murmur. This description is consistent with a grade IV murmur, which is typically loud and may indeed be associated with a thrill.
B. Very loud, with no stethoscope, thrill easily palpable, heave visible.
B. A grade V systolic murmur is very loud and can be heard with the stethoscope barely touching the chest. It often comes with a palpable thrill and may be accompanied by a visible heave or lift of the

chest wall. This description is consistent with a grade V murmur, not grade IV. Therefore, it’s not the
correct description for a grade IV murmur.
C. A soft murmur, barely audible, describes a grade I or grade II systolic murmur. This does not match the characteristics of a grade IV murmur, which is louder and more easily heard. Therefore, this description does not support a grade IV murmur.
D. A moderately loud murmur, without a thrill, could describe a grade III murmur. Additionally, a "machine-like rumble" is more characteristic of a diastolic murmur, such as those heard in conditions like aortic regurgitation or mitral stenosis, rather than a systolic murmur associated with mitral valve regurgitation.

A. Firm mass palpated at bottom of left rib cage. B. Rebound tenderness with compression over right upper quadrant. C. Tip of spleen palpable when client is asked to forcefully exhale. D. Pain noted when palpating McBurney's point.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A firm mass palpated at the bottom of the left rib cage can indicate an enlarged spleen, which is an abnormal finding. Splenomegaly may occur due to various conditions, including infections, liver disease, or blood disorders.
B. Rebound tenderness in the right upper quadrant is indicative of potential inflammation or irritation in the abdominal cavity, often associated with appendicitis or other conditions affecting the right lower quadrant. This finding is not specific to the spleen but rather to the general abdominal assessment and does not indicate an abnormal response related to spleen palpation.
C. Normally, the spleen is not palpable in most people. However, if the spleen is slightly enlarged, its tip may be palpable during deep palpation or when the client is asked to exhale forcefully. While this can be an abnormal finding, it may still fall within a range of normal variability depending on the clinical context.
D. McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen and is associated with the appendix. Pain at this location is indicative of potential appendicitis, not an abnormal finding related to spleen palpation. This finding does not provide information about the condition of the spleen.

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The nurse assesses a client with a sleep pattern disturbance. In developing a plan of care, what assessment data should the nurse obtain first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse auscultates the precordium of a client who is diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation and hears a grade IV systolic murmur. When documenting the comparison of systolic murmurs, which characteristics should the nurse use to support this systolic finding?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse examines a client's abdomen. Which finding indicates an abnormal response when palpating the spleen?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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