When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia
The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before
The 40-year-old patient who is to have a kidney stone removed
The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal
The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago
The Correct Answer is C
A. The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before: While lack of previous surgery experience may contribute to anxiety, it doesn't inherently increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
B. The 40-year-old patient who is to have kidney stone removed: While the type of surgery may influence anesthesia considerations, being 40 years old alone doesn't significantly increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
C. The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal: Advanced age is a significant risk factor for altered response to anesthesia due to age-related changes in physiology, metabolism, and drug clearance.
D. The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago: While smoking history can impact anesthesia considerations, stopping smoking 8 years ago likely reduces the associated risks compared to current smokers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Getting up slowly from a sitting or lying position is an important aspect of patient education for individuals taking tamsulosin, as this medication can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or fainting upon standing up quickly.
B. Tamsulosin is often taken once daily, approximately 30 minutes after the same meal each day, typically breakfast or the first meal of the day. Taking it with breakfast is not a requirement for
its efficacy.
C. There is no need to restrict fluids while on tamsulosin therapy. In fact, adequate hydration is generally encouraged.
D. Tamsulosin is not typically associated with causing hypertension. Instead, it is more commonly associated with hypotension, especially orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Gtt/min= Volume per hour× Drop factor/ Time in minutes per hour Given:
Volume per hour = 150 mL Drop factor = 20 gtt/mL
Time in minutes per hour = 60 minutes Gtt/min= 150mL/hr×20gtt/mL/60min/hr Gtt/min=50
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min
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