When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia
The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before
The 40-year-old patient who is to have a kidney stone removed
The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal
The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago
The Correct Answer is C
A. The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before: While lack of previous surgery experience may contribute to anxiety, it doesn't inherently increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
B. The 40-year-old patient who is to have kidney stone removed: While the type of surgery may influence anesthesia considerations, being 40 years old alone doesn't significantly increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
C. The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal: Advanced age is a significant risk factor for altered response to anesthesia due to age-related changes in physiology, metabolism, and drug clearance.
D. The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago: While smoking history can impact anesthesia considerations, stopping smoking 8 years ago likely reduces the associated risks compared to current smokers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Partial agonists like nalbuphine have a lower dependency potential than full agonists. This means they are less likely to lead to physical dependence or tolerance when used for pain
management.
B. Partial agonists do not necessarily have a higher potency than agonists. Potency refers to the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect, which can vary among different drugs regardless of their classification as agonists or partial agonists.
C. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used for their anti-inflammatory effects.
They are primarily used for pain management.
D. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used to reverse the effects of opiates. They may be used in certain situations to manage opioid-induced side effects or in cases of opioid overdose, but their primary indication is for pain management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Opioids: Opioids typically cause sedation, respiratory depression, and decreased reflexes, which are opposite to the symptoms described.
B. Depressants: Depressants, such as benzodiazepines or alcohol, would likely cause sedation, decreased reflexes, and confusion, but not the symptoms of restlessness, talkativeness, and hyperactive reflexes.
C. Alcohol: While alcohol intoxication can cause confusion, talkativeness, and tachycardia, it is less likely to result in hyperactive reflexes and restlessness as described.
D. Stimulants: Stimulants, such as amphetamines or cocaine, can cause restlessness, hyperactivity, talkativeness, confusion, panic, and tachycardia, matching the symptoms described.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.