When assessing the fetus using Leopold maneuvers, the nurse feels a round, firm, movable fetal part in the pelvis inlet and a long, smooth, and soft surface in the mother's left side close to the midline. What is the likely position of the fetus?
Select one:
ROA
RSA
LOA
LSP
The Correct Answer is C
a. ROA means right occiput anterior, which would imply that the fetal back is on the mother's right side.
b. RSA means right sacrum anterior, which would imply that the fetal buttocks are in the pelvis inlet and the fetal head is in the fundus.
c. LOA, which means left occiput anterior means that the fetus is in a longitudinal lie, with its head as the presenting part, facing the right posterior quadrant of the mother's pelvis, and its back on the mother's left anterior side. This is one of the most common and favorable fetal positions for delivery.
d. LSP means left sacrum posterior, which would imply that the fetal buttocks are on the mother's left side and slightly rotated toward the back (posterior).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. A woman at 37 weeks' gestation who experienced spontaneous rupture of membranes 30 minutes ago with normal fetal movements is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.
b. A woman who is 9 cm dilated and fully effaced and is requesting to go to the bathroom to have a bowel movement is in the second stage of labor, which means that the cervix is fully dilated and the fetus is descending in the birth canal. The urge to have a bowel movement is a sign that the fetal head is pressing on the rectum and that delivery is imminent. This patient needs immediate attention and preparation for delivery.
c. A woman at 27 weeks' gestation who noted scant vaginal bleeding today after having sexual intercourse in the morning may be experiencing placenta previa or placental abruption but this is not a priority compared to the woman in option b who is yet to deliver.
d. A woman who is 2 cm dilated and 80% effaced and is crying and shows mild anxiety is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. Endometriosis is a condition in which the tissue that normally lines the inside of the uterus grows outside the uterus, causing severe pain and other symptoms.
b. Primary dysmenorrhea is the term used to describe painful menstrual cramps that are not caused by another condition.
c. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a collection of physical and emotional symptoms that occur in the days or weeks before a woman's period.
d. Secondary dysmenorrhea is the term used to describe painful menstrual cramps that are caused by another condition, such as endometriosis.
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