When evaluating clients in the urgent care center, which client should be seen first? The client:.
with a large laceration on the left scapula.
with a compound fracture of the right tibia.
who is unable to breastfeed her 4 week old.
with a labored respiratory rate of 28.
The Correct Answer is D
The client with a labored respiratory rate of 28 should be seen first because this indicates respiratory distress, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Respiratory rate is one of the vital signs that are used to assess the severity of a patient’s condition and to triage them accordingly. A normal respiratory rate for an adult is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Choice A is wrong because a large laceration on the left scapula is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
A laceration is a wound that involves a cut or tear in the skin, which may cause bleeding, pain, and infection. However, it can be managed with wound care and suturing in the urgent care center.
Choice B is wrong because a compound fracture of the right tibia is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
A compound fracture is a fracture that breaks through the skin, which may cause bleeding, pain, infection, and nerve or blood vessel damage. However, it can be stabilized with splinting and dressing in the urgent care center before transferring to a hospital for further treatment.
Choice C is wrong because being unable to breastfeed a 4 week old is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
Breastfeeding difficulties may be caused by various factors, such as poor latch, low milk supply, sore nipples, or mastitis. However, they can be managed with education, support, and medication in the urgent care center.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This statement requires further follow-up because it indicates that the client may have poor sleep quality or quantity, which can affect their health and well-being. According to, the main components of the sleep history include defining the specific sleep problem, assessing the disorder’s clinical course, differentiating between sleep disorders, evaluating the sleep-wakefulness patterns, questioning the bed partner, and obtaining a family history of sleep disorders.
Choice A is wrong because falling asleep after about 15 minutes is normal and indicates good sleep hygiene.
Choice B is wrong because waking up to urinate once each night is not uncommon in older adults and does not necessarily disrupt their sleep continuity.
Choice D is wrong because having a regular nighttime routine is beneficial for promoting relaxation and preparing for sleep.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A two-hour postprandial glucose test is done to check your blood sugar level two hours after you eat a meal.
This test helps to diagnose diabetes or monitor its treatment. A normal blood sugar level for this test is less than 140 mg/dL.
Choice A is wrong because fasting means not eating for at least eight hours before the test. This is done for a fasting blood glucose test, not a postprandial one.
Choice B is wrong because before breakfast means before you eat anything in the morning. This is also done for a fasting blood glucose test, not a postprandial one.
Choice D is wrong because before glucose is consumed means before you drink a sugary liquid for a glucose tolerance test. This test measures how your body handles glucose after drinking it, not after eating a meal.
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