When evaluating clients in the urgent care center, which client should be seen first? The client:.
with a large laceration on the left scapula.
with a compound fracture of the right tibia.
who is unable to breastfeed her 4 week old.
with a labored respiratory rate of 28.
The Correct Answer is D
The client with a labored respiratory rate of 28 should be seen first because this indicates respiratory distress, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Respiratory rate is one of the vital signs that are used to assess the severity of a patient’s condition and to triage them accordingly. A normal respiratory rate for an adult is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Choice A is wrong because a large laceration on the left scapula is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
A laceration is a wound that involves a cut or tear in the skin, which may cause bleeding, pain, and infection. However, it can be managed with wound care and suturing in the urgent care center.
Choice B is wrong because a compound fracture of the right tibia is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
A compound fracture is a fracture that breaks through the skin, which may cause bleeding, pain, infection, and nerve or blood vessel damage. However, it can be stabilized with splinting and dressing in the urgent care center before transferring to a hospital for further treatment.
Choice C is wrong because being unable to breastfeed a 4 week old is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
Breastfeeding difficulties may be caused by various factors, such as poor latch, low milk supply, sore nipples, or mastitis. However, they can be managed with education, support, and medication in the urgent care center.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
These interventions are based on the principles of sleep hygiene and cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I), which are evidence-based strategies to promote better sleep.
Choice A is wrong because alcohol can disrupt sleep quality and cause frequent awakenings during the night. It can also interfere with the normal sleep cycle and reduce REM sleep.
Choice D is wrong because reading a book 30 minutes before bedtime can be stimulating and make it harder to fall asleep. It can also violate the stimulus control therapy, which aims to associate the bed only with sleep and sex and avoid any other activities that may keep the mind alert.
Some additional sentences are:
- Normal ranges for sleep vary depending on age, lifestyle, and individual factors, but generally adul,ts need about 7 to 9 hours of sleep per night.
- Insomnia is a common sleep disorder that affects about 10% to 30% of adults and can have negative impacts on physical and mental health, as well as quality of life.
- If insomnia persists despite following these interventions, it is advisable to consult a doctor or a sleep specialist for further evaluation and treatment options.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
“I have limited my alcohol intake before bedtime.”. This statement shows that the client understands that alcohol can interfere with sleep quality and quantity. Alcohol can disrupt the normal sleep cycle and cause frequent awakenings, nightmares, or insomnia.
Choice A is wrong because sleeping in most mornings can disrupt the regular sleep schedule and make it harder to fall asleep at night. It is better to keep a consistent bedtime and wake time, even on weekends.
Choice B is wrong because working on the computer before going to bed can expose the client to blue light, which can suppress the production of melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep. It is better to avoid screens and other stimulating activities at least an hour before bedtime.
Choice D is wrong because watching television for 1 hour before sleeping can also expose the client to blue light and interfere with sleep onset. It is better to engage in relaxing activities such as reading, listening to soothing music, or meditating before sleeping.
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