Which client does the nurse recognize to have the greatest risk of an adverse reaction if prescribed potassium Penicillin G?
55-year-old woman with coronary artery disease
21-year-old college senior who is being treated for Streptococcus
23-year-old woman who recently delivered and has mastitis
65-year-old man with dehydration .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
55-year-old woman with coronary artery disease. While patients with coronary artery disease often have multiple comorbidities and may be on medications that could interact with Penicillin G, there is no specific increased risk of adverse reactions to Penicillin G in this population.
Choice B rationale
21-year-old college senior who is being treated for Streptococcus. Penicillin G is often used to treat Streptococcus infections. There is no specific increased risk of adverse reactions in this population unless the patient has a known allergy to penicillins.
Choice C rationale
23-year-old woman who recently delivered and has mastitis. Penicillin G can be used to treat mastitis, an infection of the breast tissue that results in breast pain, swelling, warmth, and redness. There is no specific increased risk of adverse reactions in this population unless the patient has a known allergy to penicillins.
Choice D rationale
65-year-old man with dehydration. Dehydration can affect kidney function, and Penicillin G is excreted by the kidneys. Therefore, patients with dehydration or any other condition that reduces kidney function are at a higher risk of adverse reactions to Penicillin G3.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Omitted meals can lead to hypoglycemia, not diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is caused by a lack of insulin, not a lack of food intake.
Choice B rationale
Polydipsia and polyphagia are symptoms of hyperglycemia, not causes of DKA. They occur as the body tries to compensate for high blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale
Not taking enough insulin is a primary cause of the development of DKA. Without enough insulin, the body begins to break down fat for fuel, which produces acids known as ketones.
Choice D rationale
An insulin overdose would lead to hypoglycemia, not DKA. DKA is caused by a lack of insulin, not an excess.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Drawing the peak level at 0930, which is 30 minutes after the start of the infusion, would be too early. The medication would not have had enough time to reach its peak level in the blood.
Choice B rationale
The peak level of gentamicin is typically evaluated 30 minutes after the completion of the infusion. Since the infusion is administered over 1 hour, the peak level would be expected to be drawn at 10001.
Choice C rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2030, which is 12 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
Choice D rationale
Drawing the peak level at 2100, which is 12.5 hours after the start of the infusion, would not provide an accurate representation of the peak level of gentamicin. This is because the medication would have been metabolized and excreted over this period.
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