Which client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
a) The client with a heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70.
b) The client diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation who has a thready peripheral pulse.
c) The client diagnosed with pericarditis who has chest pain with inspiration.
d) The client with a history of atrial fibrillation who has developed slurred speech.

The correct answer is: d) The client with a history of atrial fibrillation who has developed slurred speech.


Choice A reason: A heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70, while slightly lower than normal, may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and this blood pressure reading can be within acceptable limits for some individuals, especially if they are asymptomatic.
Choice B reason: Mitral valve regurgitation with a thready peripheral pulse indicates a decrease in cardiac output, which can be concerning. However, it may not require immediate intervention unless the client shows signs of severe decompensation or other critical symptoms. Continuous monitoring and evaluation are essential, but immediate action might not be necessary.
Choice C reason: Chest pain with inspiration in a client with pericarditis can be a symptom of the condition itself, which involves inflammation of the pericardium. While pain management and monitoring are important, this symptom alone may not necessitate immediate intervention unless it is severe or accompanied by other alarming signs.
Choice D reason: The development of slurred speech in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is a critical symptom that warrants immediate intervention. Slurred speech can be a sign of a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TI

Choice A reason: Decreased calcium is expected in end-stage chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys are responsible for converting vitamin D into its active form, which helps in calcium absorption. Reduced kidney function leads to decreased active vitamin D, resulting in lower calcium levels.

Choice B reason: Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is not typical in CKD. Instead, BUN levels usually increase because the kidneys are less able to remove urea from the blood. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism, and elevated BUN is indicative of impaired kidney function.

Choice C reason: Decreased hemoglobin is expected in CKD due to reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, and a lack of it leads to anemia, reflected by lower hemoglobin levels.

Choice D reason: Decreased potassium is not typically seen in CKD. In fact, potassium levels often increase because the kidneys are less able to excrete it. Hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in CKD and requires careful monitoring.

Choice E reason: Elevated creatinine is expected in CKD. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism, and elevated levels indicate impaired kidney function as the kidneys are less able to clear it from the blood.

Choice F reason: Increased phosphorus is a common finding in CKD due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete phosphorus. This can lead to hyperphosphatemia, which can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism and further complications.

Choice G reason: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a hallmark of CKD. GFR measures how well the kidneys are filtering blood, and a lower GFR indicates reduced kidney function. It is used to stage the severity of CKD.

Choice A reason: An increased heart rate is not an expected therapeutic response to adenosine. Adenosine is used to slow the heart rate by temporarily blocking the electrical conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node. This action is crucial in managing supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), as it can help restore a normal heart rhythm. An increased heart rate would suggest that the medication is not working as intended, and the underlying tachycardia may persist or worsen.

Choice B reason: A short period of asystole is the correct and expected therapeutic response when administering adenosine. Adenosine works by briefly stopping the heart's electrical activity, leading to a brief asystole (lack of heartbeat). This allows the heart's natural pacemaker to reset and potentially restore a normal rhythm. Although this can be alarming, it is a known and anticipated effect of the drug, and it typically resolves quickly as the heart resumes normal activity.

Choice C reason: Hypertension is not an expected response to adenosine. Adenosine generally causes vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure. The primary focus of adenosine in the context of SVT is on its cardiac effects rather than influencing blood pressure significantly. If hypertension occurs, it may be unrelated to the administration of adenosine and could indicate another underlying issue that needs to be addressed.

Choice D reason: Decreased intraocular pressure is not a relevant or expected response to adenosine administration in the context of managing SVT. Adenosine's primary effect is on the heart's electrical conduction system, and it does not significantly impact intraocular pressure. The focus should remain on observing the cardiac responses to ensure the medication is effectively managing the SVT.