Which client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
a) The client with a heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70.
b) The client diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation who has a thready peripheral pulse.
c) The client diagnosed with pericarditis who has chest pain with inspiration.
d) The client with a history of atrial fibrillation who has developed slurred speech.
The correct answer is: d) The client with a history of atrial fibrillation who has developed slurred speech.
Choice A reason: A heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70, while slightly lower than normal, may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and this blood pressure reading can be within acceptable limits for some individuals, especially if they are asymptomatic.
Choice B reason: Mitral valve regurgitation with a thready peripheral pulse indicates a decrease in cardiac output, which can be concerning. However, it may not require immediate intervention unless the client shows signs of severe decompensation or other critical symptoms. Continuous monitoring and evaluation are essential, but immediate action might not be necessary.
Choice C reason: Chest pain with inspiration in a client with pericarditis can be a symptom of the condition itself, which involves inflammation of the pericardium. While pain management and monitoring are important, this symptom alone may not necessitate immediate intervention unless it is severe or accompanied by other alarming signs.
Choice D reason: The development of slurred speech in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is a critical symptom that warrants immediate intervention. Slurred speech can be a sign of a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TI
The client with a heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70.
The client diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation who has a thready peripheral pulse.
The client diagnosed with pericarditis who has chest pain with inspiration.
The client with a history of atrial fibrillation who has developed slurred speech.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: A heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70, while slightly lower than normal, may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and this blood pressure reading can be within acceptable limits for some individuals, especially if they are asymptomatic.
Choice B reason: Mitral valve regurgitation with a thready peripheral pulse indicates a decrease in cardiac output, which can be concerning. However, it may not require immediate intervention unless the client shows signs of severe decompensation or other critical symptoms. Continuous monitoring and evaluation are essential, but immediate action might not be necessary.
Choice C reason: Chest pain with inspiration in a client with pericarditis can be a symptom of the condition itself, which involves inflammation of the pericardium. While pain management and monitoring are important, this symptom alone may not necessitate immediate intervention unless it is severe or accompanied by other alarming signs.
Choice D reason: The development of slurred speech in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is a critical symptom that warrants immediate intervention. Slurred speech can be a sign of a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), both of which require urgent medical attention. Immediate action is needed to evaluate and manage the client's condition to prevent further complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Not needing vascular access to perform PD is a significant advantage for patients. Peritoneal dialysis uses the peritoneal membrane in the abdomen as a filter to clean the blood, which eliminates the need for vascular access, such as fistulas or catheters required in hemodialysis. This can reduce the risks associated with vascular access, such as infections and complications related to surgical procedures.
Choice B reason: Being able to perform PD in the comfort of one's home is a major benefit. Patients can manage their dialysis treatments at home, which offers more convenience and flexibility compared to traveling to a dialysis center for hemodialysis sessions. This can greatly improve the quality of life and reduce the burden of frequent trips to healthcare facilities.
Choice C reason: Stating that there is no risk for infection with PD is inaccurate. While PD offers many benefits, it does carry a risk of peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneal cavity. Patients must be educated on proper technique and hygiene to minimize this risk. Hence, this statement is not accurate and should not be included as an advantage.
Choice D reason: Having flexibility in when to do the exchanges is another benefit of PD. Patients can schedule their dialysis exchanges at times that best fit their lifestyle and daily routines. This flexibility allows for greater independence and freedom compared to the fixed schedules required for in-center hemodialysis.
Choice E reason: PD can take less time than hemodialysis treatments, especially when considering travel and waiting times associated with in-center hemodialysis. Although the actual dialysis process for PD requires regular exchanges throughout the day or night, it integrates more seamlessly into daily life, making it a time-efficient option for many patients.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The electrician who suffered external burn injuries a month ago is stable enough to be concerned with discharge plans. This indicates that his burns have been managed and he is in a phase of recovery where he is preparing for discharge. Although his request is important, it is not an immediate priority compared to more acute conditions.
Choice B reason: The older adult client admitted yesterday with partial- and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body is in a critical condition and needs continuous monitoring, especially with high fluid administration. However, their condition is currently being managed with IV fluids. While this client requires close observation, there is no immediate indication of a life-threatening change that demands immediate intervention compared to the firefighter's situation.
Choice C reason: The adult client admitted a week ago with deep partial-thickness burns over 35% of the body who is reporting pain is also in need of pain management and ongoing care. However, pain, while significant and requiring treatment, does not take precedence over the potential airway compromise and respiratory distress posed by smoke inhalation and facial burns in the firefighter.
Choice D reason: The firefighter with smoke inhalation and facial burns who has just arrived on the unit must be assessed first due to the immediate risk of airway compromise and respiratory distress. Smoke inhalation can lead to rapid swelling of the airways, making it a critical emergency. Facial burns also increase the risk of airway obstruction. Prompt assessment and intervention are essential to ensure the firefighter's airway remains patent and to provide necessary respiratory support.
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