Which endocrine disorder causes the client to have dilutional hyponatremia?

Diabetes insipidus (DI)

Hypothyroidism

Hyperthyroidism

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Diabetes insipidus causes hypernatremia due to excessive water loss from ADH deficiency, leading to polyuria and dehydration. This increases serum sodium concentration, not dilutional hyponatremia, which is characterized by low sodium due to water retention, making DI incorrect for this condition.

Choice B reason: Hypothyroidism affects metabolism through low thyroid hormone levels, causing symptoms like fatigue and weight gain. It does not directly cause dilutional hyponatremia, as it does not involve ADH or water retention. Sodium imbalances in hypothyroidism are rare and not dilutional in nature.

Choice C reason: Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism but does not typically cause dilutional hyponatremia. It may lead to dehydration from increased metabolic demand, but this does not involve excessive water retention or ADH dysfunction, which are necessary for dilutional hyponatremia to occur.

Choice D reason: SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to excessive ADH, leading to water retention in the kidneys. This dilutes serum sodium, lowering its concentration. The increased fluid volume without corresponding sodium retention is the hallmark of SIADH, making it the correct endocrine disorder.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Antihypertensive treatment is not the priority for epidural hematoma, which causes rapid neurological deterioration from arterial bleeding and increased ICP. While hypertension may occur, surgical evacuation via burr holes is urgent to relieve pressure and prevent brain herniation, taking precedence over blood pressure management.

Choice B reason: Anticoagulant therapy is contraindicated in epidural hematoma, as it worsens bleeding. Epidural hematomas involve arterial hemorrhage, often from trauma, and anticoagulation would increase hematoma size, exacerbating ICP and neurological damage, making this an inappropriate and harmful intervention.

Choice C reason: Inserting an intracranial monitoring device may assess ICP but is not the priority in epidural hematoma. Rapid surgical intervention (burr holes) is needed to evacuate the hematoma and relieve life-threatening pressure, as monitoring delays critical treatment in this rapidly progressing condition.

Choice D reason: Burr holes are the priority intervention for epidural hematoma, a surgical emergency caused by arterial bleeding, often from skull trauma. Rapid evacuation of the hematoma relieves increased ICP, preventing brain herniation and death, making this the most urgent and effective treatment to stabilize the client.

A. Elimination of iron by the body B. Excessive consumption of coffee or tea C. Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract D. Decrease in the total body iron stores with age

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Elimination of iron by the body is not a typical cause of anemia in older adults. Iron is tightly regulated, and excessive loss occurs through bleeding, not spontaneous elimination. Anemia in the elderly is more commonly due to chronic blood loss or impaired absorption, not iron excretion.

Choice B reason: Excessive coffee or tea consumption can inhibit iron absorption due to tannins binding dietary iron, but it is not a primary cause of anemia in older adults. Blood loss or chronic disease are more common culprits, making dietary inhibition a less likely contributor in this population.

Choice C reason: Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract is a common cause of anemia in older adults. Chronic bleeding from ulcers, colon cancer, or urinary tract issues depletes iron stores, leading to iron deficiency anemia, a frequent finding in the elderly due to higher prevalence of these conditions.

Choice D reason: A decrease in total body iron stores with age is not a primary cause of anemia. While absorption may decline slightly, blood loss from gastrointestinal or genitourinary sources is a more significant contributor in older adults, as it directly reduces iron available for hemoglobin synthesis.

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Which endocrine disorder causes the client to have dilutional hyponatremia?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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