Which interventions should be immediately initiated when caring for a patient at 32 weeks' gestation who presents with a moderate amount of painless bright red vaginal bleeding?
Monitor vital signs.
Administer oxygen at 10L via non-rebreather face mask.
Perform a digital vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation.
Initiate intravenous (IV) Lactated Ringers for fluid replacement.
Assess client for incidence of domestic violence.
Correct Answer : A,D
Choice A rationale
Monitoring vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature) is a crucial immediate intervention to assess the client's hemodynamic stability in the presence of vaginal bleeding. Bright red bleeding may indicate active bleeding that could compromise maternal and fetal well-being.
Choice B rationale
While oxygen administration might be considered if there are signs of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, applying oxygen at 10L via non-rebreather face mask is not the immediate first-line intervention for painless bright red vaginal bleeding at 32 weeks gestation without further assessment. The need for oxygen depends on the overall clinical picture.
Choice C rationale
A digital vaginal examination is contraindicated in the presence of unexplained vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, especially if placenta previa is suspected. Palpation of the placenta could cause severe hemorrhage. An ultrasound should be performed first to determine the cause of the bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating intravenous (IV) Lactated Ringers for fluid replacement is an important immediate intervention to maintain intravascular volume and prevent hypovolemia, especially if the vaginal bleeding is significant. This helps to support maternal circulation and fetal perfusion.
Choice E rationale
While assessing for domestic violence is important for the overall well-being of the pregnant client, it is not an immediate intervention in the acute presentation of painless bright red vaginal bleeding at 32 weeks gestation. The immediate focus should be on assessing and managing the bleeding and maternal-fetal status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preeclampsia with severe features is characterized by hypertension (≥160/110 mm Hg), proteinuria, and evidence of end-organ dysfunction. The client’s elevated BP, proteinuria, headache, hyperreflexia with clonus, and abnormal liver function tests indicate severe preeclampsia rather than gestational hypertension or HELLP syndrome. The absence of seizures rules out eclampsia.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures by blocking neuronal excitability and reducing cerebral vasospasm, acting as a neuroprotective agent. Labetalol lowers BP by reducing vascular resistance, preventing stroke and organ damage while maintaining uteroplacental perfusion.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Blood pressure directly reflects disease progression and response to antihypertensives. Severe hypertension increases the risk of cerebral hemorrhage and placental abruption. Deep tendon reflexes indicate neurological involvement. Hyperreflexia signals worsening preeclampsia, while diminished reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria and systemic involvement. HELLP syndrome involves hemolysis, low platelets, and severe liver dysfunction, which this client does not meet fully. Eclampsia requires the presence of seizures, which are absent.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
IV antibiotics are not indicated without confirmed infection. Cesarean delivery is considered for fetal distress but is not first-line in controlled preeclampsia. Betamethasone is used for fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks, making it unnecessary at 37 weeks.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Platelet count is relevant for HELLP syndrome but does not guide preeclampsia management alone. Fetal heart rate variability monitors fetal status but does not directly assess preeclampsia severity. Serum bilirubin is not a primary indicator of preeclampsia progression.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A urinalysis with a specific gravity within the expected range (typically 1.005 to 1.030) suggests that the client's kidneys are able to concentrate urine appropriately. This finding does not directly indicate a urinary tract infection or vaginal infection. It reflects the hydration status and renal function.
Choice B rationale
The presence of ketones in the urine typically indicates fat metabolism due to insufficient carbohydrate intake, which is not a direct indicator of a urinary tract infection or vaginal infection. However, the presence of bacteria in the urinalysis strongly suggests a urinary tract infection, a potential cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Pain, particularly pelvic or lower abdominal pain, along with foul-smelling vaginal discharge are classic signs and symptoms of a vaginal infection, such as bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. These symptoms are indicative of an inflammatory or infectious process in the reproductive tract.
Choice D rationale
Denying unprotected sexual activity reduces the likelihood of sexually transmitted infections as the cause of symptoms like vaginal discharge. However, other types of vaginal infections (e.g., bacterial vaginosis, yeast infection) or urinary tract infections can occur regardless of sexual activity.
Choice E rationale
A cloudy appearance in the urinalysis suggests the presence of particulate matter, such as bacteria, white blood cells, or epithelial cells, which can indicate an infection in the urinary tract. While the pH is not provided, a pH outside the normal range (typically 4.6 to 8.0) can also support the suspicion of a urinary tract infection.
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