Which lab results should be monitored for a patient on furosemide?
Creatinine
Platelets
Chloride
RBC
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases renal workload, risking kidney injury. Creatinine rises (>1.2 mg/dL) with reduced glomerular filtration, a critical marker to monitor for nephrotoxicity or dehydration in heart failure patients.
Choice B reason: Platelets (150,000-450,000/µL) assess clotting, unaffected by furosemide directly. Diuretics alter volume, not hematopoiesis, so monitoring platelets is irrelevant unless bleeding or unrelated conditions complicate the patient’s status.
Choice C reason: Chloride may drop with furosemide, but it’s less critical than creatinine. Hypochloremia affects acid-base balance, yet renal function takes priority, as kidney damage has broader, immediate implications in therapy.
Choice D reason: RBC count reflects anemia, not furosemide’s primary effects. Diuretics cause hemoconcentration if overused, but creatinine better captures renal impact, making red cell monitoring secondary in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vasoconstrictors like oxymetazoline shrink vessels, aiding epistaxis control. It’s a secondary step requiring preparation, not first, as direct pressure is faster, non-invasive, and effective for initial hemostasis in most anterior bleeds.
Choice B reason: Packing with a balloon stops severe bleeding but is invasive and later in management. Pressure is the first, simpler action; packing escalates care unnecessarily before basic measures are tried in acute epistaxis.
Choice C reason: Silver nitrate cauterizes vessels, useful for persistent bleeding. It’s not first, requiring setup and assessment after pressure fails, as most epistaxis resolves with compression, making this a subsequent intervention.
Choice D reason: Squeezing nostrils compresses Kiesselbach’s plexus, stopping most anterior nosebleeds within 10 minutes. It’s the immediate, evidence-based first action, non-invasive, and effective, prioritizing rapid control before escalating to other methods.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bradypnea (slow breathing) isn’t typical in asthma exacerbation; tachypnea occurs due to airway obstruction. Reduced respiratory rate suggests fatigue or resolution, not active exacerbation, contradicting the physiology of acute bronchoconstriction.
Choice B reason: Wheezing results from turbulent airflow through narrowed bronchioles in asthma exacerbation. It’s a hallmark sign, reflecting reversible obstruction from inflammation and bronchospasm, consistently present during acute episodes requiring intervention.
Choice C reason: Bradycardia isn’t associated with asthma exacerbation; tachycardia is common from hypoxia and stress. Slow heart rate may indicate severe hypoxia late-stage, but it’s not a typical finding in active exacerbation.
Choice D reason: Accessory muscle use (e.g., sternocleidomastoid) compensates for obstructed airflow in asthma exacerbation. It reflects increased work of breathing due to bronchoconstriction, a frequent physical sign during acute respiratory distress.
Choice E reason: Decreased oxygen saturation occurs in asthma exacerbation from ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Inflamed airways limit oxygen delivery, dropping SpO2 below 95%, a common finding necessitating bronchodilators and oxygen therapy.
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