Which laboratory test measures the effectiveness of warfarin?
PTT.
PT/INR.
aPTT.
ACT.
The Correct Answer is B
PT stands for prothrombin time, which is a measure of how long it takes the blood to clot.
INR stands for international normalized ratio, which is a way of standardizing the PT results across different laboratories.
Warfarin is a blood thinner that works by inhibiting the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver.
Therefore, warfarin prolongs the PT and increases the INR. The PT/INR test is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and adjust the dose accordingly.
Choice A is wrong because PTT stands for partial thromboplastin time, which is another measure of blood clotting time, but it reflects the activity of different clotting factors than PT. PTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Choice C is wrong because aPTT stands for activated partial thromboplastin time, which is a variation of PTT that uses an activator to speed up the clotting time. Like PTT, aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Choice D is wrong because ACT stands for activated clotting time, which is a measure of the whole blood clotting time. ACT is used to monitor high-dose heparin therapy during certain procedures, such as cardiac bypass surgery or angioplasty.
The normal ranges for these tests may vary depending on the laboratory and the method used, but generally, they are:
• PT: 10 to 13 seconds
• INR: 0.8 to 1.2 (without warfarin) or 2.0 to 3.0 (with warfarin)
• PTT: 25 to 35 seconds
• aPTT: 30 to 40 seconds
• ACT: 70 to 120 seconds
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Lifestyle is the greatest contributing factor that can lead to many diseases, especially noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) such as cardiovascular diseases, cancers, chronic respiratory diseases and diabetes.According to the World Health Organization (WHO), NCDs are responsible for 74% of all deaths worldwide, and they share four major risk factors: tobacco use, physical inactivity, the harmful use of alcohol and unhealthy diets.These modifiable behaviours increase the risk of metabolic risk factors such as raised blood pressure, increased blood glucose, elevated blood lipids and obesity, which can lead to NCDs.
Choice A is wrong because trauma is not a factor that can lead to many diseases, but rather a result of injuries or accidents that damage the body.Trauma can cause acute or chronic conditions, such as infections, bleeding, fractures, organ failure or post-traumatic stress disorder, but it is not a common cause of NCDs.
Choice C is wrong because congenital means present at birth or inherited.
Congenital diseases are caused by genetic mutations or environmental factors that affect the development of the fetus.
Some examples of congenital diseases are Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, congenital heart defects and spina bifida.
Congenital diseases are not the greatest contributing factor to many diseases because they are relatively rare and often detected early.
Choice D is wrong because genetics refers to the inherited traits from parents that influence the risk of developing certain diseases.
Genetics can play a role in some NCDs, such as cancers, diabetes and some cardiovascular diseases, but it is not the only or the most important factor.
Genetics interacts with environmental and lifestyle factors to determine the likelihood of developing a disease.
Therefore, genetics alone cannot lead to many diseases.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of urine and salt (sodium) excreted by the kidneys. They are used to treat high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema (fluid retention). However, some diuretics can cause low levels of potassium in the blood (hypokalemia), which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and arrhythmias. To prevent this, a combination of diuretics acting on different parts of the kidney (such as a loop diuretic and a thiazide diuretic) may be prescribed.This way, the potassium-sparing effect of one diuretic can balance the potassium-wasting effect of the other, while still achieving a net sodium loss.
Choice A is wrong because they are not a part of the initial diuretic therapy.Combination diuretic therapy is usually reserved for patients who are resistant to or intolerant of monotherapy.
Choice C is wrong because little follow up is not needed after the initial treatment.Patients on combination diuretic therapy require close monitoring of their blood pressure, electrolytes, renal function, and weight to avoid adverse effects such as dehydration, hyponatremia, hypotension, and worsening renal function.
Choice D is wrong because they do not increase the risk of hypokalemia.As explained above, combination diuretic therapy aims to reduce the risk of hypokalemia by using a potassium-sparing diuretic along with a potassium-wasting diuretic.
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