Which of the following arrhythmias is associated with heart failure?
First-degree heart block
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia
Sinus bradycardia
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A Reason:
First-degree heart block is a condition where the electrical signals in the heart are delayed but still reach the ventricles. It is generally considered benign and does not typically lead to heart failure. It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally on an ECG.
Choice B Reason:
Atrial fibrillation (AFib) is a common arrhythmia associated with heart failure. AFib causes the atria to beat irregularly and often rapidly, which can lead to poor blood flow and increased risk of stroke. In heart failure patients, AFib can exacerbate symptoms and worsen the prognosis due to the loss of atrial contraction and irregular ventricular response.
Choice C Reason:
Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a serious arrhythmia that is often associated with heart failure. VT originates in the ventricles and can lead to hemodynamic instability and sudden cardiac death if not treated promptly. It is a common complication in patients with heart failure and cardiomyopathy.
Choice D Reason:
Sinus bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate, typically less than 60 beats per minute. While it can occur in healthy individuals, especially athletes, it is not specifically associated with heart failure. In some cases, severe bradycardia can lead to symptoms of heart failure, but it is not a primary arrhythmia linked to the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["7.2"]
Explanation
Step-by-Step Calculation:
Step 1: Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg
Result = 80 kg
Step 2: Calculate the total dose of dopamine in mcg/min.
3 mcg/kg/min × 80 kg = 240 mcg/min
Result = 240 mcg/min
Step 3: Convert the total dose from mcg/min to mg/min.
240 mcg/min ÷ 1000 = 0.24 mg/min
Result = 0.24 mg/min
Step 4: Determine the concentration of dopamine in mg/mL.
500 mg ÷ 250 mL = 2 mg/mL
Result = 2 mg/mL
Step 5: Calculate the infusion rate in mL/min.
0.24 mg/min ÷ 2 mg/mL = 0.12 mL/min
Result = 0.12 mL/min
Step 6: Convert the infusion rate to mL/hr.
0.12 mL/min × 60 min/hr = 7.2 mL/hr
Result = 7.2 mL/hr
Final Result:
The IV pump should be set to 7.2 mL/hr.
Correct Answer is ["30"]
Explanation
Step-by-Step Calculation:
Step 1: Convert 2 gm to mg.
2 gm × 1000 = 2000 mg
Step 2: Determine the concentration of Lidocaine in mg/mL.
2000 mg ÷ 500 mL = 4 mg/mL
Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate in mL/min.
2 mg/min ÷ 4 mg/mL = 0.5 mL/min
Step 4: Convert the infusion rate to mL/hr.
0.5 mL/min × 60 min/hr = 30 mL/hr
Result: The Lidocaine drip should be infused at 30 mL/hr.
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