Which of the following is a primary reason for the FDA to place a black box warning on a medication?

To warn about serious adverse drug events that can be life-threatening

To indicate the medication has been recalled

To highlight the medication’s beneficial effects

To suggest alternative medications

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: A black box warning is the FDA’s strongest alert, indicating serious or life-threatening adverse events, such as organ damage or death, based on clinical data. It ensures prescribers and patients are aware of significant risks, making this the correct reason.

Choice B reason: A black box warning does not indicate a medication recall, which is a separate FDA action to remove drugs from the market. Warnings highlight ongoing risks, not withdrawal, making this choice incorrect.

Choice C reason: Black box warnings focus on serious risks, not beneficial effects. Highlighting benefits is part of drug promotion, not regulatory warnings, which aim to protect against harm, making this choice incorrect.

Choice D reason: Black box warnings do not suggest alternative medications but alert about specific risks of the drug. Alternatives may be considered by providers, but this is not the warning’s purpose, making this choice incorrect.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Bias in mental health is not limited to inpatient settings; it occurs across outpatient, community, and emergency care. Stigmatizing attitudes can affect all healthcare interactions, as providers may unconsciously judge patients with mental health diagnoses, impacting care quality. This statement is inaccurate as it underestimates the pervasive nature of bias.

Choice B reason: Bias is often unconscious, not always a conscious act. Implicit biases, rooted in societal stereotypes, can influence healthcare providers’ attitudes toward mental health patients without deliberate intent. This statement is incorrect because it ignores the significant role of unconscious bias in perpetuating stigma in mental health care.

Choice C reason: Favoring clients based on their mental health diagnosis is a clear indication of bias, as it involves differential treatment based on stereotypes or assumptions. This can lead to unequal care, such as prioritizing certain diagnoses over others. This statement is incorrect, as it falsely denies a common form of bias.

Choice D reason: Negative stigmatization of mental illness is a well-documented issue in healthcare. It leads to biases where patients with mental health conditions are often judged, undertreated, or dismissed. This stigma can affect care delivery across settings, making this statement accurate and essential for discussion with a newly licensed nurse.

A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder B. Cyclothymic disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Postpartum depression

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) involves severe mood symptoms, like depression, occurring in the luteal phase (premenstrually) due to hormonal fluctuations affecting serotonin regulation. The client’s depressed mood one week before menstruation aligns with PMDD’s cyclical, premenstrual pattern, making it the most likely diagnosis.

Choice B reason: Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic, mild mood swings between hypomania and depression, not tied to menstrual cycles. The client’s symptoms are specifically premenstrual, not chronic or cyclical over years, making this disorder inconsistent with the described temporal pattern.

Choice C reason: Bipolar disorder features distinct episodes of mania and depression lasting weeks, not tied to menstrual cycles. The client’s mood changes are premenstrual, not episodic or prolonged, making bipolar disorder unlikely compared to PMDD’s hormone-related, cyclical presentation.

Choice D reason: Postpartum depression occurs after childbirth, driven by hormonal shifts and psychosocial stressors, not premenstrually. The client’s symptoms are linked to the menstrual cycle, not pregnancy, making postpartum depression irrelevant to the described clinical presentation.

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Which of the following is a primary reason for the FDA to place a black box warning on a medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is discussing bias issues in mental health with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the discussion?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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