Which of the following responses should the nurse offer to a patient who asks why he's having a vagotomy to treat his ulcer?
To repair a perforation in the stomach.
To remove the ulcerated tissue which allows healing.
To reduce the ability of the stomach to produce acid.
To prevent the stomach from sliding into the chest.
The Correct Answer is C
A. A vagotomy is not performed to repair a perforation. A perforation typically requires different surgical interventions, such as suturing or possibly resection. This response does not accurately reflect the purpose of a vagotomy.
B. While this sounds like a logical reason for treating an ulcer, vagotomy itself does not involve removing ulcerated tissue. It is a procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid secretion in the stomach, rather than directly excising tissue. Thus, this response is incorrect.
C. A vagotomy is performed to cut the vagus nerve, which decreases the stimulation of acid production in the stomach. This reduction in acid helps promote healing of the ulcer and prevents future ulcer formation. It directly addresses the underlying problem of excessive acid production associated with peptic ulcers.
D. This response refers to a different surgical procedure, such as a fundoplication, which is done to prevent hiatal hernias where the stomach slides into the chest. Vagotomy does not serve this purpose and is unrelated to preventing such anatomical issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.6"]
Explanation
The infant weighs 10 pounds, which is equivalent to about 4.53692 kilograms (10 x 0.453592). The prescribed dose is 2 mg/kg, so the total dose per administration is 9.07384 mg (2 mg/kg x 4.53692 kg).
Since the elixir's strength is 15 mg/mL, we divide the total dose by the strength of the elixir to find out how many mL to administer: 9.07384 mg ÷ 15 mg/mL = 0.60492267 mL. Rounding to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 0.6 mL of ranitidine per dose to the infant.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Abdominal cramping can occur with various gastrointestinal conditions, including peritonitis. However, it is not specific to peritonitis and may also be present in conditions like gastroenteritis or bowel obstruction.
B. Profuse diarrhea is typically associated with gastrointestinal infections or inflammatory bowel diseases rather than peritonitis. In fact, peritonitis often leads to reduced bowel activity, potentially resulting in constipation rather than diarrhea.
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds can occur in early stages of peritonitis but are not a classic finding. In many cases of peritonitis, bowel sounds may be diminished or absent due to the body’s response to inflammation. While it might be observed in some instances, it is not characteristic of peritonitis.
D. This is a classic and significant finding in peritonitis. A hard, rigid abdomen indicates muscle guarding, which is the body’s response to inflammation and irritation of the peritoneum. This rigidity is often referred to as "board-like" and is a key indicator of peritonitis.
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