Which of the following routes is affected by the first-pass effect?

Oral (PO)

Intravenous (IV)

Intramuscular (M)

Subcutaneous (SC)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This primarily affects oral medications, as they are absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and first pass through the liver.
B.   Intravenous (IV) drugs bypass the first-pass effect as they are directly introduced into the bloodstream.
C.   Intramuscular (IM) and D. Subcutaneous (SC) routes also bypass the first-pass effect since the drug enters the bloodstream without passing through the liver initially.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Insomnia is not a serious adverse effect of ethinyl estradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin). Common side effects may include nausea or headaches, but insomnia is not a red flag.
B. This could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication associated with hormonal contraceptives like Yasmin. The nurse should educate the patient to report these symptoms immediately.
C. Sedation is not a common or serious adverse effect of Yasmin. Side effects are more commonly related to gastrointestinal or cardiovascular systems.
D. Indigestion is not typically associated with a serious complication of Yasmin. Some mild gastrointestinal discomfort may occur, but it is not a major concern unless it is severe.

A. Oral (PC) B. Intravenous (IV) C. Intramuscular (IM) D. Subcutaneous (SC)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Oral (PC): Naloxone undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism when taken orally, making it ineffective via this route.
B. Intravenous (IV): This is an effective route for naloxone administration.
C. Intramuscular (IM): This is also an effective route for naloxone administration.
D. Subcutaneous (SC): Naloxone can also be administered subcutaneously.

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Which of the following routes is affected by the first-pass effect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is prescribed ethinyl estradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin) for to treat postmenopausal vasomotor symptoms. The nurse instructs the client to monitor for which of the following that may indicate a serious adverse complication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. The nurse understands that naloxone (Narcan) be administered in all of the following routes EXCEPT for:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is providing an in-service on the complications of overdosing on morphine, such as the opioid toxicity triad. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse include in her in-service about opioid toxicity triad?

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