Which of the following statements about drug metabolism in pharmacokinetics is correct?
Drugs with strong first-pass metabolism are best administered via an enteral route
Metabolism alters medications so that they can be excreted from the body
The first-pass effect increases the bioavailability of orally administered drugs
Metabolism primarily occurs in the kidneys
The Correct Answer is B
A. Drugs with strong first-pass metabolism are best administered via an enteral route: Drugs that undergo extensive first-pass metabolism are often less effective when given enterally, as much of the drug is inactivated by the liver before reaching systemic circulation. Non-enteral routes (e.g., sublingual, IV) are preferred to bypass the liver initially.
B. Metabolism alters medications so that they can be excreted from the body: The liver uses enzymatic processes to convert drugs into more water-soluble forms, facilitating their elimination through the kidneys or bile. This process can either activate, inactivate, or detoxify substances depending on the drug.
C. The first-pass effect increases the bioavailability of orally administered drugs: The first-pass effect reduces, not increases, the bioavailability of orally administered drugs. It refers to the initial metabolism in the liver that significantly reduces the active concentration of a drug before it reaches systemic circulation.
D. Metabolism primarily occurs in the kidneys: While the kidneys are essential for drug excretion, metabolism primarily occurs in the liver. Hepatic enzymes, especially those of the cytochrome P-450 system, play the central role in drug biotransformation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: While effective as an anticonvulsant, phenobarbital has a slower onset of action and is not the preferred first-line treatment for acute seizures. It is more commonly used in refractory cases or for long-term seizure control.
B. Intravenous Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line treatment for active seizures, especially status epilepticus. Given IV, it acts quickly by enhancing GABA activity, which calms neuronal excitability and stops seizure activity efficiently.
C. Oral Phenytoin: Phenytoin is used for long-term seizure prevention but is not effective for terminating ongoing seizures due to its slow onset when taken orally. It may be used after benzodiazepines to prevent seizure recurrence but not as the initial agent.
D. Subcutaneous Sumatriptan: Sumatriptan is used for treating acute migraines and has no role in managing seizures. It acts on serotonin receptors to relieve migraine symptoms, not to control abnormal neuronal discharges.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Montelukast: This leukotriene receptor antagonist is used for long-term asthma control and prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm. It is not effective for treating acute asthma attacks due to its delayed onset of action.
B. Salmeterol: This is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) used for maintenance therapy in asthma. It has a slower onset and should never be used for rapid symptom relief during an acute attack, as doing so can delay appropriate treatment.
C. Albuterol: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that provides rapid bronchodilation and is the first-line rescue medication for aborting an acute asthma attack. It works within minutes to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
D. Beclomethasone: This inhaled corticosteroid is used for long-term asthma management by reducing airway inflammation. It is not effective in acute situations because it does not provide immediate bronchodilation.
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