Which of the following statements about strictureplasty is correct?
"Strictureplasty is a non-surgical procedure that uses medications to treat strictures."
"Strictureplasty is a procedure used to remove strictures in the gastrointestinal tract."
"Strictureplasty is a surgical technique used to repair fractures in bones."
"Strictureplasty is commonly performed in the treatment of Crohn's disease."
The Correct Answer is D
A. Strictureplasty is a surgical procedure, not a non-surgical procedure. It is used to treat strictures by widening them, typically in the gastrointestinal tract.
B. Strictureplasty does not remove strictures but rather works to widen or repair the narrowed areas, allowing for improved passage through the affected part of the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Strictureplasty is not used to repair fractures in bones. It is specifically used in the gastrointestinal system to treat strictures.
D. Strictureplasty is commonly performed in the treatment of Crohn's disease, particularly in cases where the disease causes strictures in the intestines. It is a procedure that can help maintain the integrity of the intestine by widening narrowed areas without the need for resection.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Inflammation of the esophagus (esophagitis) may cause symptoms like heartburn or dysphagia, but it would not explain the sudden, sharp pain or rigid abdomen seen with a perforated ulcer.
B. An intestinal obstruction can cause abdominal pain and distension, but the rigid, board-like abdomen is more characteristic of peritonitis from a perforated ulcer, not an obstruction.
C. Additional ulcers could cause pain and bleeding, but they would not explain the sudden, sharp pain and rigid abdomen that typically result from perforation.
D. The sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the mid epigastric area, along with a rigid, board-like abdomen, are hallmark signs of a perforated ulcer, which causes peritonitis. This is a medical emergency, as the perforation allows gastric contents to leak into the peritoneal cavity, leading to widespread infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A hiatal hernia can increase the risk of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) because the hernia can cause the lower esophageal sphincter to malfunction, leading to the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This increases the risk of reflux symptoms, such as heartburn and regurgitation.
B. There is no direct link between a hiatal hernia and an increased risk for stomach cancer. While long-term GERD can contribute to other esophageal issues, such as Barrett’s esophagus, it does not directly cause stomach cancer.
C. A hiatal hernia does not increase the risk of intestinal cancer. Its primary association is with GERD and related complications.
D. A hiatal hernia is not associated with an increased risk for lung disease. However, severe GERD symptoms can cause respiratory issues such as aspiration pneumonia, but this is not the same as directly increasing the risk of lung disease.
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