Which of the following would be essential to implement to prevent late postpartum hemorrhage? Select one:
Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness.
Manually removing the placenta at delivery.
Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically.
Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness. This is because inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness is a nursing intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders. Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness can help identify and remove any retained placental fragments that may interfere with uterine contraction and involution, which are essential for hemostasis.
Choice B Reason: Manually removing the placenta at delivery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an inappropriate and risky intervention that can cause late postpartum hemorrhage. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is a procedure that involves inserting a hand into the uterus and detaching the placenta from the uterine wall. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is indicated only for a retained or adherent placenta that does not separate spontaneously or with gentle traction within 30 minutes after delivery. Manually removing the placenta at delivery can cause trauma, infection, or incomplete removal of the placenta, which can increase the risk of late postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C Reason: Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically. This is an incorrect answer that suggests an unnecessary and ineffective intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage. Administering broad- spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is a pharmacological intervention that involves giving antibiotics to prevent or treat infection. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is indicated for women with risk factors or signs of infection during or after delivery, such as prolonged rupture of membranes, chorioamnionitis, fever, or foul- smelling lochia. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically may reduce the risk of infection-related late postpartum hemorrhage, but it does not address other causes of late postpartum hemorrhage such as retained placental fragments or subinvolution of the uterus.
Choice D Reason: Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different intervention that can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, not late postpartum hemorrhage. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is a technique that involves pulling on the umbilical cord while applying counter pressure on the uterus to facilitate placental expulsion. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is indicated for active management of the third stage of labor, which can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs within 24 hours after delivery. Early postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, retained placenta, lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Preterm infant. This is an incorrect answer that confuses TTN with another respiratory condition called respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
Choice B Reason: Female infant. This is an incorrect answer that has no evidence or rationale to support it. TTN does not have a gender preference or difference in incidence or severity.
Choice C Reason: GBS status of mother. This is an incorrect answer that relates to another respiratory complication called early-onset neonatal sepsis (EONS). EONS is a bacterial infection that occurs within 72 hours after birth, which can affect multiple organs and systems in the newborn. EONS can be caused by group B streptococcus (GBS), which is a common bacterium that colonizes in some women's vagina or rectum. GBS can be transmited to the newborn during delivery and cause pneumonia, meningitis, or septic shock.
Choice D Reason: Cesarean section. This is because cesarean section is a risk factor for TTN, which is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal flaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth. Cesarean section can increase the risk of TTN because it bypasses the normal process of labor, which helps squeeze out some of the fluid from the fetal lungs.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.
Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.
Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can affect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.
Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may affect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic fluid volume, umbilical cord blood flow, and fetal anomalies.
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