The nurse assesses a newborn at 36 weeks' gestation, and the following behaviors are noted: nasal flaring, labored breathing, and excessive mucus. The nurse is most concerned about:
Select one:
Possible Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS).
Possible polycythemia.
Possible Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN).
Possible Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS).
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Possible Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS). This is an unlikely condition for this newborn, as MAS occurs when fetal stool (meconium) enters into the lungs before or during birth, causing airway obstruction, inflammation, and infection. MAS usually affects term or post-term infants who experience fetal distress or hypoxia in utero.
Choice B Reason: Possible polycythemia. This is an unrelated condition for this newborn, as polycythemia refers to an abnormally high number of red blood cells in the blood, which can increase blood viscosity and impair circulation.
Polycythemia may occur in infants who have delayed cord clamping, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal diabetes, or high altitude exposure.
Choice C Reason: Possible Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN). This is a less serious condition than RDS, as TTN is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal flaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth.
Choice D Reason: Possible Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS). This is a serious condition that requires immediate intervention and treatment, as RDS can lead to life-threatening complications such as pulmonary hemorrhage, pneumothorax, or bronchopulmonary dysplasia. RDS causes respiratory distress, nasal flaring, retractions, grunting, and central cyanosis. It usually occurs within minutes to hours after birth.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.
Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.
Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.
Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Frequent voiding encourages sphincter control. This is an incorrect statement that has no relevance to labor and delivery. Sphincter control refers to the ability to contract and relax the muscles that control urination and defecation. It is not affected by frequent voiding.
Choice B Reason: A full bladder impedes oxygen flow to the fetus. This is an incorrect statement that confuses a full bladder with a prolapsed cord. A prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix before the baby and becomes compressed by the fetal head, which can reduce oxygen flow to the fetus. A full bladder does not affect oxygen flow to the fetus.
Choice C Reason: Frequent voiding prevents bruising of the bladder. This is an incorrect statement that exaggerates the effect of a full bladder on the bladder wall. A full bladder may cause some pressure or discomfort on the bladder, but it does not cause bruising or damage.
Choice D Reason: A full bladder can impede fetal descent. This is a correct statement that explains why it is important for the nurse to assess the bladder regularly and encourage the laboring client to void every 2 hours.

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