Which treatment is likely to be planned for a patient who develops pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy?
Triple-drug therapy.
IV therapy.
Quadruple-drug therapy.
Cobalamin replacement therapy.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Triple-drug therapy is not the standard treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Choice B rationale:
IV therapy is a broad term and does not specify the treatment for pernicious anemia. In the context of pernicious anemia, cobalamin replacement therapy administered via intramuscular injections is the preferred treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Quadruple-drug therapy is not a recognized treatment for pernicious anemia. The primary treatment for pernicious anemia involves cobalamin replacement therapy to address the vitamin B12 deficiency.
Choice D rationale:
Cobalamin replacement therapy is the appropriate treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Since the patient lacks intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, cobalamin replacement therapy bypasses the need for intrinsic factor and provides the necessary vitamin B12 directly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hemophilia is a hereditary disorder caused by a deficiency of specific clotting factors, and it is indeed hereditary in nature. This statement is incorrect.
Choice B rationale:
Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder where the blood does not clot properly. Replacement therapy, which involves infusing clotting factor concentrates, is a standard treatment for hemophilia. This statement is correct.
Choice C rationale:
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder, not dominant. Males are more commonly affected because they have only one X chromosome, and if it carries the defective gene, they will have hemophilia. Females have two X chromosomes, and if one X chromosome carries the defective gene, the other X chromosome can compensate, making them carriers but not typically affected.
Choice D rationale:
Hemophilia A is the most common form of hemophilia, not hemophilia B.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While magnesium is indeed the most abundant intracellular cation in the body, this fact alone does not explain why the nurse would assess the patient's magnesium level.
Choice B rationale:
Magnesium imbalance can cause issues in the extracellular fluid compartment, but this choice does not explain why the nurse would specifically assess the patient's magnesium level.
Choice D rationale:
While hypotension can be a symptom of severe magnesium deficiency, this choice does not provide a rationale for assessing the patient's magnesium level. In this case, choice C is correct because magnesium plays a crucial role in neuromuscular excitability and contractility. Abnormal magnesium levels can lead to neuromuscular symptoms such as muscle weakness, tremors, and spasms. Additionally, magnesium is involved in cardiac muscle function, and low magnesium levels can lead to arrhythmias and other cardiac issues. Therefore, assessing the patient's magnesium level is essential in understanding their neuromuscular and cardiac health.
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