Which treatment is likely to be planned for a patient who develops pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy?

Triple-drug therapy.

IV therapy.

Quadruple-drug therapy.

Cobalamin replacement therapy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:
Triple-drug therapy is not the standard treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Choice B rationale:
IV therapy is a broad term and does not specify the treatment for pernicious anemia. In the context of pernicious anemia, cobalamin replacement therapy administered via intramuscular injections is the preferred treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Quadruple-drug therapy is not a recognized treatment for pernicious anemia. The primary treatment for pernicious anemia involves cobalamin replacement therapy to address the vitamin B12 deficiency.
Choice D rationale:
Cobalamin replacement therapy is the appropriate treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Since the patient lacks intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, cobalamin replacement therapy bypasses the need for intrinsic factor and provides the necessary vitamin B12 directly.

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Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Increased cobalamin levels are not indicative of polycythemia vera. Polycythemia vera is characterized by an increase in the total red blood cell mass. Elevated cobalamin levels are not specific to this condition.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased histamine levels are not a diagnostic marker for polycythemia vera. Histamine levels are not typically associated with this disorder.
Choice C rationale:
Increased hemoglobin levels are a significant finding in polycythemia vera. Polycythemia vera is a disorder characterized by an abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells, leading to elevated hemoglobin levels.
Choice D rationale:
Increased red blood cell levels are a hallmark feature of polycythemia vera. The increased production of red blood cells leads to elevated red blood cell levels, which is a key diagnostic indicator for this condition.

A. Occurs with both activity and rest. B. Generally lasts 10-15 minutes or more. C. Does not subside when the precipitating factor is resolved. D. Occurs intermittently over a period of time in a similar pattern.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Chronic stable angina typically occurs with activity and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Therefore, this statement is incorrect for chronic stable angina.

Choice B rationale:

Chronic stable angina usually lasts for a short duration, usually around 5 minutes, and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Prolonged pain lasting 10-15 minutes or more could indicate an unstable angina or myocardial infarction. This choice is incorrect for chronic stable angina.

Choice C rationale:

Pain due to chronic stable angina subsides when the precipitating factor, such as physical exertion, is resolved or with medication like nitroglycerin. Therefore, this statement is incorrect for chronic stable angina.

Choice D rationale:

Chronic stable angina follows a predictable pattern, occurring intermittently over a period of time, and is usually triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress. This option correctly describes the characteristic pattern of chronic stable angina.

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Which treatment is likely to be planned for a patient who develops pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse suspects that a patient has polycythemia vera based on which finding in the patient's laboratory reports? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

Which information would the nurse include when discussing pain due to chronic stable angina with the patient?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse receives a health care provider's prescription to change a patient's IV from D5. half-normal saline with 40 mEq KCl/L to DSNS with 20 mEq KCl/L. Which set of serum laboratory values supports the rationale for this IV prescription change?

Which statement is true regarding hemophilia?

Which strategy is most important for a nurse to include when planning care for a patient who has neutropenia?

Which laboratory report finding would support the nurse's conclusion that a patient has thalassemia major? Select all that apply.One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Which explanation will the nurse give a patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma about the purpose of a planned lumbar puncture?

Which information would the nurse include when discussing pain due to chronic stable angina with the patient?

The nurse suspects that which condition associated with chronic heart failure is the cause of a patient's inability to sleep well due to frequent urination?