Which sign or symptom would the nurse anticipate in a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Weight gain
Low-grade fever
Dyspnea
Contusion
Lethargy
Night sweats
Correct Answer : B,C,E,F
Choice A Reason:
Weight gain is not typically associated with tuberculosis (TB). In fact, weight loss is a common symptom of TB due to the chronic nature of the infection and the body’s increased metabolic demands to fight the disease. Patients with TB often experience a loss of appetite and significant weight loss as the disease progresses.
Choice B Reason:
Low-grade fever is a common symptom of TB. The body’s immune response to the infection often results in a persistent low-grade fever, which can be one of the early signs of the disease. This fever is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as night sweats and fatigue.
Choice C Reason:
Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can occur in patients with TB, especially if the infection has caused significant lung damage or if there is a large amount of fluid in the pleural space (pleural effusion). Dyspnea is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason:
Contusion, or bruising, is not a symptom associated with TB. TB primarily affects the lungs and can cause systemic symptoms, but it does not typically cause bruising. Contusions are more commonly associated with trauma or conditions that affect blood clotting.
Choice E Reason:
Lethargy, or a general sense of fatigue and weakness, is a common symptom of TB. The chronic nature of the infection and the body’s ongoing immune response can lead to significant fatigue. Patients with TB often feel tired and may have difficulty performing daily activities.
Choice F Reason:
Night sweats are a hallmark symptom of TB. Patients often experience drenching night sweats that can be quite severe. This symptom, along with fever and weight loss, is part of the classic triad of TB symptoms and is an important indicator for healthcare providers to consider TB in the differential diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Adherence to proper hand hygiene
Proper hand hygiene is a fundamental practice in preventing infections, including ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after patient contact, after touching potentially contaminated surfaces, and before performing any aseptic procedures. This practice helps to reduce the transmission of pathogens that can cause infections in mechanically ventilated patients. Studies have shown that adherence to hand hygiene protocols significantly decreases the incidence of VAP and other healthcare-associated infections.
Choice B Reason: Suction the client at least every 2 hours
While suctioning is an important aspect of care for mechanically ventilated patients, routine suctioning every 2 hours is not recommended. Instead, suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical condition and as needed. Over-suctioning can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice C Reason: Administering antiulcer medication
Administering antiulcer medication is a recommended practice to prevent stress ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding in mechanically ventilated patients. Stress ulcers can lead to complications such as aspiration of gastric contents, which can contribute to the development of VAP. Antiulcer medications, such as proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor antagonists, help to reduce gastric acidity and the risk of ulcer formation. This practice is part of the comprehensive care plan to prevent VAP.

Choice D Reason: Providing oral care per protocol
Providing oral care per protocol is a critical component of VAP prevention. Oral care involves cleaning the patient’s mouth, teeth, and gums to reduce the colonization of harmful bacteria that can be aspirated into the lungs. Protocols for oral care typically include the use of antiseptic solutions, such as chlorhexidine, to disinfect the oral cavity. Regular oral care has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients.
Choice E Reason: Elevating the head of the bed
Elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees is a recommended practice to prevent VAP. This position helps to reduce the risk of aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, which is a major risk factor for VAP. Elevating the head of the bed also promotes better lung expansion and ventilation, which can improve the patient’s respiratory status. This practice is widely recognized as an effective measure to prevent VAP.
Choice F Reason: Suctioning the client on a regular schedule
Similar to Choice B, routine suctioning on a regular schedule is not recommended. Suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical needs and not on a fixed schedule. Over-suctioning can cause harm and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice G Reason: Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours
Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours is an important practice to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to promote lung expansion. Regular repositioning helps to improve ventilation and drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of VAP. This practice is part of the standard care for mechanically ventilated patients to prevent various complications, including VAP.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.
Choice B Reason:
The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Choice C Reason:
The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Choice D Reason:
The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.
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