While performing a routine assessment, a nurse notices fraying on the electrical cord of a client’s continuous passive motion (CPM) device.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Report the defect to the equipment maintenance staff.
Remove the device from the room.
Initiate a requisition for a replacement CPM device.
Ensure the device inspection sticker is current.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is b. Remove the device from the room.
Choice A rationale:
- Reporting the defect to the equipment maintenance staff is essential, but it's not the immediate priority. The primary concern is to eliminate the safety hazard posed by the frayed cord to prevent potential harm to the client and others.
- Delaying the removal of the device could lead to electrical shock, fire, or other serious consequences.
- Therefore, removing the device from the room takes precedence over reporting the defect.
Choice B rationale:
- Removing the device from the room is the most appropriate first action because it:
- Eliminates the immediate safety hazard.
- Prevents potential harm to the client and others.
- Protects the device from further damage.
- Ensures the safety of the environment.
- Demonstrates the nurse's prioritization of patient safety.
Choice C rationale:
- Initiating a requisition for a replacement CPM device is necessary to ensure the client's continued treatment.
- However, it's not the first action because it doesn't address the immediate safety concern.
- The nurse should first remove the faulty device and then initiate the process for obtaining a replacement.
Choice D rationale:
- Ensuring the device inspection sticker is current is a vital part of equipment maintenance.
- However, it's not relevant to the immediate safety issue of the frayed cord.
- The presence of a current inspection sticker doesn't guarantee the device's safety or functionality at that moment.
- The nurse must prioritize removing the hazard and then follow up with appropriate documentation and reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C: “Do you have thoughts of harming yourself?”.
This is the priority question for the nurse to ask the client because it assesses the client’s risk for suicide, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of conduct disorder. The nurse should use a direct and nonjudgmental approach when asking about suicidal ideation and plan.
Choice A: “How do you get along with your peers at school?” is wrong because it is not the most urgent question to ask the client.
While it is important to assess the client’s social relationships and possible peer rejection, this can be done after addressing the client’s safety and mental status.
Choice B: “Do you have a criminal record?” is wrong because it is not relevant to the client’s current condition and might make the client feel defensive or stigmatized.
The nurse should avoid asking questions that imply blame or judgment and focus on the client’s strengths and coping skills.
Choice D: “How do you manage your behavior?” is wrong because it is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the client in an emergency department setting.
This question might imply that the client is responsible for their conduct disorder, which is a complex and multifactorial mental health condition. The nurse should collaborate with the client and their family to develop a behavior management plan that involves positive reinforcement, limit setting, and consistent consequences.
Normal ranges: According to the DSM-5, conduct disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the rights of others or societal norms.
The symptoms of conduct disorder include aggression, deceitfulness, destruction of property, serious rule violations, and lack of remorse.
Conduct disorder can cause significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. The prevalence of conduct disorder is estimated to be 4% among children and adolescents.
The risk factors for conduct disorder include genetic factors, neurobiological factors, environmental factors, and psychological factors.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","H"]
Explanation
A, B, C, D, and H. Here is why:.
- A. Heart rate: The client’s heart rate is elevated at 118/min, which could indicate blood loss, dehydration, pain, anxiety, or infection. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the cause and intervene as needed.
- B. Current medications: The client is taking ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily PRN for arthritis pain. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastric irritation, ulceration, and bleeding. This finding requires immediate follow-up to evaluate the client’s pain level, medication use, and possible alternatives to NSAIDs.
- C. Blood pressure: The client’s blood pressure is low at 90/50 mm Hg, which could indicate hypovolemia, shock, or cardiac dysfunction. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client’s fluid status, perfusion, and organ function.
- D. Stool results: The client’s stool tested positive for occult blood and H. pylori bacteria. Occult blood indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, which could be related to the client’s abdominal pain and weight loss. H. pylori is a common cause of peptic ulcer disease, which can also cause bleeding and pain. This finding requires immediate follow-up to confirm the diagnosis and initiate treatment with antibiotics and acid-suppressing drugs.
- H. Hemoglobin and hematocrit: The client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit are low at 9.1 g/dL and 27%, respectively. These values indicate anemia, which could be caused by chronic blood loss, nutritional deficiency, or bone marrow suppression. This finding requires immediate follow-up to determine the etiology and severity of the anemia and provide appropriate therapy such as blood transfusion, iron supplementation, or erythropoietin.
The other findings are not as urgent as the ones above:.
- E. Respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate is normal at 18/min. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or hypoxia.
- F. WBC count: The client’s WBC count is normal at 6,700/mm3. There is no indication of infection or inflammation.
- G. Temperature: The client’s temperature is slightly elevated at 37.5° C (99.5° F), but not enough to warrant immediate concern. It could be due to stress, dehydration, or a mild infection. The nurse should monitor the temperature trend and report any significant changes or signs of sepsis.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.