While the nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a female client with bipolar disorder, the client suddenly begins to take off her clothes and throw them about the room. Which action should the nurse take first?
Leave the client's room so she can act out her anxiety.
State it is unacceptable to undress during the interview.
Ignore the client's inappropriate behavior.
Change to less anxiety-provoking questions.
The Correct Answer is B
A: Leaving the client alone could increase the risk of harm to herself or others and does not address the immediate need for safety and boundaries.
B: Clearly stating that undressing is unacceptable sets immediate boundaries, which is essential in managing acute behavioral situations, ensuring the client's dignity, and maintaining a professional environment.
C: Ignoring the behavior does not provide any guidance or boundaries for the client, which could lead to escalation or reinforce the inappropriate behavior.
D: While changing to less anxiety-provoking questions may be helpful, it does not directly address the behavior at hand, which could lead to further inappropriate actions or misunderstandings about acceptable behavior during the assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Providing counseling about contraceptives may not address the immediate concern of managing genital herpes or the risks associated with multiple sexual partners.
B. Remaining non-judgmental and assuring the client of confidentiality is crucial to establishing trust and ensuring open communication. This approach encourages the client to share accurate information about their sexual history and current concerns, which is essential for effective STI management and prevention.
C. Informing the client that complications will not result from reinfection is inaccurate and may minimize the seriousness of the STI. Genital herpes can cause recurrent outbreaks and potentially lead to complications such as neonatal herpes if transmitted to a newborn during childbirth.
D. Clarifying that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse is true but does not address the client's specific situation or provide guidance on managing genital herpes and reducing the risk of transmission.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A: Using a different sphygmomanometer would not address the underlying cause of the spasms, which is likely not related to the equipment itself.
B: Taking the blood pressure in the other arm may avoid the spasms temporarily, but it does not address the potential underlying medical issue causing the spasms.
C: Administering an antianxiety medication is not indicated as the spasms are not necessarily related to anxiety; they could be a sign of a physiological condition.
D: Reviewing the client's serum calcium level is the most appropriate action. The spasms described are indicative of Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can cause increased neuromuscular excitability, leading to spasms. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the spasms, which in this case could be a calcium deficiency.
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