An adolescent client with non-union of a comminuted fracture of the tibia is admitted with osteomyelitis. The healthcare provider collects bone aspirate specimens for culture and sensitivity and applies a cast to the adolescent's lower leg. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Begin parenteral antibiotic therapy.
Administer antiemetic agents.
Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
Bivalve the cast for distal compromise.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Begin parenteral antibiotic therapy.
This is the correct answer. Osteomyelitis is a serious bone infection that requires prompt and aggressive antibiotic therapy to prevent further complications and promote healing.
B. Administer antiemetic agents.
Antiemetic agents may be necessary if the client is experiencing nausea or vomiting, but this is not the priority action.
C. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
While nutritional support is important for healing, initiating antibiotic therapy to address the infection takes precedence.
D. Bivalve the cast for distal compromise.
Bivalving the cast might be necessary if there is evidence of compartment syndrome or impaired circulation, but there is no indication from the question that such a complication is present at this time.
Nursing Test Bank
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clamp the chest tube immediately with a plastic clamp. Clamping the chest tube can lead to tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening complication. It should never be done unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.
B. Apply an occlusive dressing over the chest tube site. This action is not indicated in this situation and could interfere with drainage.
C. Ensure the chest tubing is not kinked or hanging low. This is the correct intervention as a kinked or dependent chest tube can impede drainage, leading to respiratory distress.
D. Reinforce the chest tube connection to the container with tape. While ensuring the chest tube connection is secure is important, it is not the priority in this situation where the client is experiencing sudden shortness of breath.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Providing counseling about contraceptives may not address the immediate concern of managing genital herpes or the risks associated with multiple sexual partners.
B. Remaining non-judgmental and assuring the client of confidentiality is crucial to establishing trust and ensuring open communication. This approach encourages the client to share accurate information about their sexual history and current concerns, which is essential for effective STI management and prevention.
C. Informing the client that complications will not result from reinfection is inaccurate and may minimize the seriousness of the STI. Genital herpes can cause recurrent outbreaks and potentially lead to complications such as neonatal herpes if transmitted to a newborn during childbirth.
D. Clarifying that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse is true but does not address the client's specific situation or provide guidance on managing genital herpes and reducing the risk of transmission.
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