Why does the nurse administer lorazepam intramuscularly (IM) to the patient rather than into the subcutaneous tissue?

The patient does not have enough body fat to give the medication subcutaneously.

Intramuscular injections require smaller needles than subcutaneous injections.

The medication will be absorbed and begin to work more quickly when given IM.

Intramuscular injections are preferred for patients with a high risk of bleeding.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Body fat levels influence subcutaneous absorption but are not the primary reason for choosing IM over SC injection in this scenario.

Choice B reason: Needle size varies by medication and patient factors, but this is not the defining reason for selecting IM over SC injection.

Choice C reason: IM injections deliver medication directly to muscle tissue with a rich vascular supply, ensuring faster absorption and onset compared to subcutaneous administration.

Choice D reason: IM injections are not inherently safer for patients at risk of bleeding; they carry similar risks and require proper assessment before administration.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Lisinopril is Zestril’s generic name; an ACE inhibitor, it’s widely used for hypertension, matching the context of a common medication order.

Choice B reason: Acetaminophen, a pain reliever, isn’t Zestril’s generic; it lacks antihypertensive action, making it irrelevant to the implied medication class.

Choice C reason: Morphine, an opioid, treats pain, not hypertension; it doesn’t align with Zestril’s purpose or class, ruling it out as the generic name.

Choice D reason: Fentanyl, another opioid, addresses pain, not blood pressure; it’s unrelated to Zestril’s therapeutic role, excluding it from consideration.

A. 5 mL B. 7 mL C. 10 mL D. 14 mL

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: 5 mL gives 125 mg; this underdoses the 175 mg order, reducing Ceclor’s antibacterial effect, risking persistent ear infection due to insufficient concentration.

Choice B reason: 7 mL is correct; 175 mg divided by 125 mg/5 mL equals 7 mL, delivering the exact cephalosporin dose for effective otitis media treatment.

Choice C reason: 10 mL provides 250 mg; this overdoses Ceclor, risking gastrointestinal upset or resistance, exceeding the therapeutic need for the infection safely.

Choice D reason: 14 mL yields 350 mg; this extreme overdose amplifies side effects like diarrhea or toxicity, far beyond the ordered 175 mg dose requirement.

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Why does the nurse administer lorazepam intramuscularly (IM) to the patient rather than into the subcutaneous tissue?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the generic name on the medication? (No medication specified; assuming a common example from context, e.g., Zestril.)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The physician orders Ceclor 175 mg po for an ear infection. After reconstitution, the medication is available as 125 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The patient prefers to take an herbal supplement rather than the prescription medication ordered by the physician. Which is the most appropriate response of the nurse?

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