Why does the nurse administer lorazepam intramuscularly (IM) to the patient rather than into the subcutaneous tissue?
The patient does not have enough body fat to give the medication subcutaneously.
Intramuscular injections require smaller needles than subcutaneous injections.
The medication will be absorbed and begin to work more quickly when given IM.
Intramuscular injections are preferred for patients with a high risk of bleeding.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Body fat levels influence subcutaneous absorption but are not the primary reason for choosing IM over SC injection in this scenario.
Choice B reason: Needle size varies by medication and patient factors, but this is not the defining reason for selecting IM over SC injection.
Choice C reason: IM injections deliver medication directly to muscle tissue with a rich vascular supply, ensuring faster absorption and onset compared to subcutaneous administration.
Choice D reason: IM injections are not inherently safer for patients at risk of bleeding; they carry similar risks and require proper assessment before administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Multiple pharmacies increase polypharmacy risk; 16 prescriptions across four sources raise chances of duplication or interactions, lacking centralized oversight.
Choice B reason: Five hypertension drugs signal polypharmacy; excessive medications for one condition heighten interaction risks, potentially causing adverse effects or toxicity.
Choice C reason: Daughter’s help with eyedrops aids compliance; this single-task assistance doesn’t inherently increase drug numbers or polypharmacy-related risks.
Choice D reason: Weekly warfarin tests monitor safety; this manages one drug’s effect, not indicating polypharmacy, but rather appropriate therapeutic oversight.
Choice E reason: Allergies affect drug choice, not quantity; this doesn’t contribute to polypharmacy, as it’s a sensitivity issue, not a medication count concern.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: PRN is as needed; EKGs here are routine, not symptom-driven, making this inapplicable to a standard admission protocol for all patients.
Choice B reason: One-time is a single event; this order applies to all admissions ongoing, not a one-off, distinguishing it from limited-duration directives.
Choice C reason: STAT is immediate; routine EKGs aren’t urgent, occurring as part of standard care, not requiring the priority of acute intervention orders.
Choice D reason: Standing orders apply automatically to all qualifying patients; this EKG protocol fits, ensuring consistent cardiac assessment unless overridden.
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