With which term will the nurse document the finding after noting multiple 1-mm red macules when assessing the skin of a patient with leukemia and thrombocytopenia?
Purpura.
Bruising.
Petechiae.
Ecchymosis.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Purpura refers to purple or red discolorations on the skin caused by bleeding underneath the skin. It is larger than petechiae and ecchymosis and could be a sign of a more serious underlying condition. Petechiae are small, red or purple dots that appear on the skin due to minor bleeding from broken capillaries. In the context of leukemia and thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), petechiae are common due to impaired clotting mechanisms.
Choice B rationale:
Bruising occurs due to damage to blood vessels underneath the skin, resulting in the leakage of blood into the surrounding tissues. Bruises are typically larger than petechiae and can occur with various conditions, including trauma. In this case, the small 1-mm red macules are more indicative of petechiae.
Choice D rationale:
Ecchymosis refers to a larger area of subcutaneous bleeding or bruising. It is larger than both petechiae and purpura and often results from more significant trauma or bleeding disorders. The description of multiple 1-mm red macules is characteristic of petechiae rather than ecchymosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A low level of hepcidin would not cause a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Hepcidin regulates iron homeostasis by inhibiting the absorption of iron from the intestines and promoting its storage in cells.
Choice B rationale:
An increase in iron-binding capacity typically occurs in conditions like iron deficiency anemia, where the body tries to increase its capacity to transport iron. This would not cause a low hemoglobin level in an otherwise healthy individual.
Choice C rationale:
Aging often leads to a decrease in the efficiency of nutrient absorption, including iron. This decrease in intestinal absorption of iron can result in low hemoglobin levels in elderly individuals. It's a common cause of anemia in the elderly population.
Choice D rationale:
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the production of red blood cells. A decrease in erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys would lead to anemia, but it is not a typical effect of aging and is usually associated with kidney disease.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Chronic stable angina typically occurs with activity and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Therefore, this statement is incorrect for chronic stable angina.
Choice B rationale:
Chronic stable angina usually lasts for a short duration, usually around 5 minutes, and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Prolonged pain lasting 10-15 minutes or more could indicate an unstable angina or myocardial infarction. This choice is incorrect for chronic stable angina.
Choice C rationale:
Pain due to chronic stable angina subsides when the precipitating factor, such as physical exertion, is resolved or with medication like nitroglycerin. Therefore, this statement is incorrect for chronic stable angina.
Choice D rationale:
Chronic stable angina follows a predictable pattern, occurring intermittently over a period of time, and is usually triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress. This option correctly describes the characteristic pattern of chronic stable angina.
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