You admitted a client who experienced a precipitous labor.
What is the highest concern for maternal complication related to this type of labor?

Increased risk for an operative delivery.

Increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).

Decreased risk for vaginal laceration.

Increased risk for neonatal sepsis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Precipitous labor is a rapid labor that typically lasts less than 3 hours. While it can result in trauma and complications, it does not inherently increase the risk for an operative delivery, which is more often related to other factors like fetal distress or failure to progress.

Choice B rationale

Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant concern with precipitous labor due to the rapid and forceful contractions that can cause uterine atony, leading to increased bleeding after birth.

Choice C rationale

In a precipitous labor, the rapid delivery can cause vaginal lacerations, not a decreased risk. The swift passage of the baby through the birth canal increases the risk of tears and trauma.

Choice D rationale

Neonatal sepsis is related to infections acquired during delivery but is not specifically linked to the speed of labor. The primary concern in precipitous labor is maternal trauma and hemorrhage, not infection.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Based on the provided information:

Boggy fundus: This indicates uterine atony, which is a primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Addressing this immediately is crucial to prevent excessive bleeding.
Heavy lochia with small clots: This further supports the concern for postpartum hemorrhage, necessitating prompt attention to assess and manage the bleeding.

Therefore, the nurse should first address the client's Fundus (Option A) followed by the client's Lochia (Option C).

So, the completed sentence would be:

"The nurse should first address the client's Fundus followed by the client's Lochia."

A. Category 1. B. Category 2. C. Category 3. D. Category 4. .

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Category 1 is a normal fetal heart rate pattern with no signs of fetal distress, which is not applicable in this case.

Choice B rationale

Category 2 represents an intermediate category with some concerns, but recurrent late decelerations and absent variability place this scenario in a higher risk category.

Choice C rationale

Category 3 indicates abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, including absent variability with recurrent late decelerations, which is associated with potential fetal hypoxia or acidemia and requires prompt intervention.

Choice D rationale

There is no Category 4 in fetal heart rate monitoring. .

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You admitted a client who experienced a precipitous labor.What is the highest concern for maternal complication related to this type of labor?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client in the fourth stage of labor after a vaginal delivery in the labor and delivery unit. Exhibits Complete the following sentence using the list of options: The nurse should first address the client's dropdown followed by the client's dropdown.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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You admitted a client who experienced a precipitous labor.
What is the highest concern for maternal complication related to this type of labor?