Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Sp 2024
ATI Custom NUR209 Final Assessment Sp 2024
Total Questions : 45
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreExplanation
A. Abundant lanugo is incorrect because postmature newborns typically lose their lanugo before birth.
B. Vernix in the folds and creases is incorrect as vernix caseosa, the white, cheese-like substance covering the skin of the fetus, is often absent in postmature newborns due to it being absorbed as the gestation period extends beyond the normal term.
C. Short, soft fingernails are not expected in postmature newborns; instead, they may have long, overgrown nails.
D. Cracked, peeling skin is a common finding in postmature newborns due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid and a decrease in the protective vernix caseos
A.
E. A positive Moro reflex is a normal finding in newborns, including those who are postmature, indicating a healthy neurological response.
Which of the following findings indicates that oral rehydration therapy has been effective?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A heart rate of 130/min is elevated and may indicate continued dehydration or stress. It does not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of oral rehydration therapy.
B. A capillary refill greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion and ongoing dehydration. It does not indicate the effectiveness of oral rehydration therapy.
C. A respiratory rate of 24/min is within normal range for a 3-year-old child. It does not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of oral rehydration therapy.
D. A urine specific gravity of 1.015 indicates adequate hydration. Normal urine specific gravity typically ranges from 1.005 to 1.030, and a value closer to 1.015 indicates proper hydration
status. Therefore, this finding suggests that oral rehydration therapy has been effective in restoring fluid balance.
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Metronidazole: Metronidazole is an antibiotic and does not have significant interactions with sildenafil.
B. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication and does not have significant interactions with sildenafil.
C. Prednisone: Prednisone is a corticosteroid and does not have significant interactions with sildenafil.
D. Isosorbide: Isosorbide is a nitrate medication used to treat angin
A. Combining sildenafil with nitrate medications can lead to severe hypotension and is contraindicated. Sildenafil potentiates the vasodilatory effects of nitrates, which can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure.
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Your baby should sleep at least 6 hours between feedings.": Newborns typically wake every 2-3 hours for feeding, so sleeping for 6 hours between feedings is not indicative of adequate breastfeeding.
B. "Your baby should burp after each feeding.": Burping is important for gas relief but does not necessarily indicate sufficient breastfeeding.
C. "Your baby should have a wake cycle of 30 to 60 minutes after each feeding.": The wake cycle after feeding is not a reliable indicator of sufficient breastfeeding.
D. "Your baby should wet 6 to 8 diapers per day.": Monitoring the number of wet diapers is a
reliable indicator of adequate breastfeeding. A newborn who is getting enough breast milk should produce at least 6 to 8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient hydration and nutrient intake.
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "My child will take the enzymes 2 hours before meals.": Pancreatic enzymes should be taken with meals or snacks, not before.
B. "My child will take the enzymes to improve her metabolism.": While pancreatic enzymes help with digestion, their purpose is not to improve metabolism.
C. "My child will take the enzymes to help digest the fat in foods.": This statement accurately reflects the purpose of pancreatic enzymes in cystic fibrosis. These enzymes are necessary because individuals with cystic fibrosis often have pancreatic insufficiency, leading to difficulty digesting fats and certain nutrients in food.
D. "My child will take the enzymes following meals.": Pancreatic enzymes should be taken with meals or snacks, not after.
Explanation
A. "If suspicion of abuse exists then reporting is mandatory."
Rationale:
A. "If suspicion of abuse exists then reporting is mandatory.": Reporting suspected child abuse is mandatory for healthcare workers when there is a reasonable suspicion or belief that a child is being abused or neglected. This is to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
B. "If the potential abuser commits to stopping the abuse, health care workers are not required to report it.": Regardless of the abuser's commitment to stop, healthcare workers are still required to report suspected abuse.
C. "Evidence must exist prior to reporting.": While evidence can strengthen a case, suspicion alone is sufficient to trigger the mandatory reporting of child abuse.
D. "I don't want to defame someone if the report is false.": Reporting suspected abuse is a legal obligation, and defaming someone is not the purpose of reporting. Authorities are responsible for investigating the validity of the report.
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Smiles when a parent appears: This is a social and emotional developmental milestone typically achieved by an 8-month-old infant and is not indicative of cerebral palsy.
B. Sits with pillow props: Difficulty sitting without support or requiring props to maintain a sitting position can be a manifestation of cerebral palsy, reflecting motor delays and impaired muscle control.
C. Tracks an object with eyes: Tracking objects with eyes is a visual developmental milestone and does not directly relate to cerebral palsy.
D. Uses a pincer grasp to pick up a toy: The pincer grasp typically develops around 9 to 12 months of age and is not directly related to cerebral palsy.
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Obtain a type and crossmatch: While obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary in the event of significant hemorrhage, the first action should be to address the potential cause of hypotension, which could be uterine atony.
B. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus: Postpartum hypotension is often caused by uterine atony, so the first action should be to assess the firmness of the uterus and massage it to stimulate contraction if necessary.
C. Administer oxytocin infusion: Oxytocin infusion may be necessary to help contract the uterus and control bleeding, but it should be implemented after assessing uterine firmness.
D. Initiate oxygen therapy by nonrebreather mask: While oxygen therapy may be needed if the client is hypotensive due to hemorrhage, assessing uterine firmness is the priority action to address the potential cause of hypotension.
menopausal hormone therapy following total hysterectomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the information?
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Take at different times of the day: Consistency in timing is typically recommended for hormone therapy to maintain stable hormone levels.
B. Take an extra dose if missed a day: It's not advisable to take extra doses of hormone therapy if a dose is missed without consulting a healthcare provider.
C. Prevents osteoporotic fractures: Menopausal hormone therapy, particularly estrogen therapy, can help prevent osteoporotic fractures by maintaining bone density.
D. Prevents from having a cerebral hemorrhage: While hormone therapy may have cardiovascular benefits, including a reduced risk of stroke, it is not primarily indicated for preventing cerebral hemorrhage.
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Decreased blood pressure: Menopause can be associated with fluctuations in blood pressure, but it is not typically characterized by decreased blood pressure.
B. Urinary retention: Urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency, or stress incontinence may occur during menopause, but urinary retention is not a typical manifestation.
C. Dryness with intercourse: Vaginal dryness is a common symptom of menopause due to decreased estrogen levels, leading to changes in vaginal tissue and lubrication, which can cause discomfort during intercourse.
D. Elevation in body temperature above 37.8°C (100°F): Hot flashes are a hallmark symptom of menopause and are characterized by sudden feelings of heat, sweating, and flushing, but they do not typically cause a sustained elevation in body temperature.
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