Ati Med Surg exam midterm rn 36 1125

Ati Med Surg exam midterm rn 36 1125

Total Questions : 42

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Question 1: View

Which laboratory finding indicates the resolution of a patient's acute pancreatitis?

Explanation

Choice A reason: An increasing hemoglobin level does not indicate the resolution of acute pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels can fluctuate due to various factors, including hydration status and blood loss, but are not directly related to the resolution of pancreatitis.

Choice B reason:A decreasing serum amylase level is indicative of the resolution of acute pancreatitis. Amylase is an enzyme that helps digest carbohydrates and is released in large amounts when the pancreas is inflamed. As the inflammation resolves, amylase levels decrease.

Choice C reason: A falling serum bilirubin level may indicate improvement in liver function but is not a specific indicator of the resolution of acute pancreatitis. Bilirubin levels can be affected by conditions other than pancreatitis, such as bile duct obstruction or liver disease.

Choice D reason:An increasing serum alkaline phosphatase level is generally associated with bile duct obstruction or bone disease and does not indicate the resolution of acute pancreatitis. This enzyme is found in several tissues throughout the body, including the liver and bones.


Question 2: View

Which laboratory finding indicates the resolution of a patient's acute pancreatitis?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

An increasing hemoglobin level does not indicate the resolution of acute pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels can fluctuate due to various factors, including hydration status and blood loss, but are not directly related to the resolution of pancreatitis.

Choice B rationale

During an episode of acute pancreatitis, serum concentrations of amylase and lipase rise significantly, often within hours of pancreatic injury. These elevated enzyme levels are key components in diagnosing the condition. As the inflammation subsides and the pancreas begins to heal, the levels of these enzymes typically decrease, returning to normal ranges. Therefore, a declining serum amylase level suggests that the acute inflammatory process is resolving.

Choice C rationale

Serum bilirubin levels are indicative of liver function and bile metabolism. Elevated bilirubin may occur if pancreatitis leads to bile duct obstruction or liver involvement. However, a decrease in bilirubin levels addresses biliary system recovery rather than directly reflecting pancreatic inflammation resolution.

Choice D rationale

An increasing serum alkaline phosphatase level is generally associated with bile duct obstruction or bone disease and does not indicate the resolution of acute pancreatitis. This enzyme is found in several tissues throughout the body, including the liver and bones.


Question 3: View

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Which complication would result in gastric contents spilling into the patient's peritoneal cavity?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Hemorrhage refers to bleeding, which can be a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease but does not lead to the spilling of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.

Choice B rationale
Dumping syndrome is a condition where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, which can cause symptoms like nausea and abdominal pain, but it does not involve the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.

Choice C rationale
Perforation is the correct answer because it describes a hole forming in the wall of the stomach or duodenum, allowing gastric contents to spill into the peritoneal cavity, leading to peritonitis, which is a severe and life-threatening condition.

Choice D rationale
Gastric outlet obstruction is a blockage at the end of the stomach that prevents contents from entering the small intestine, which can cause vomiting and abdominal pain, but it does not result in the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.

https://patient.gastro.org/wp-content/uploads/2021/11/CGH_Patient-ed-ulcer_2018.jpg


Question 4: View

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of lactulose to a client who has cirrhosis. The client states, "I don't need this medication. I am not constipated." The nurse should explain that in clients who have cirrhosis, lactulose is used to decrease levels of which of the following components in the bloodstream?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Potassium levels are not directly affected by lactulose. While cirrhosis can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, including potassium, lactulose is not used to manage potassium levels in the bloodstream.

Choice B rationale
Ammonia is produced by the breakdown of proteins in the intestines and is normally processed by the liver. In cirrhosis, the liver's ability to convert ammonia to urea is impaired, leading to increased levels in the blood. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by converting it into ammonium, which is then excreted.

Choice C rationale
Bicarbonate levels are related to the body's pH balance and are not the target of lactulose treatment. Cirrhosis does not typically result in bicarbonate imbalances that would be treated with lactulose.

Choice D rationale
Glucose levels are managed by insulin and other metabolic processes, not lactulose. While cirrhosis can affect overall metabolism, lactulose does not have a direct effect on blood glucose levels.


Question 5: View

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client following a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse should expect to find a decrease in which of the following laboratory values?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
The red blood cell (RBC) count is not typically affected by hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is a process that primarily targets the removal of waste products and excess fluid from the blood, not red blood cells.

Choice B rationale
Potassium levels are often elevated in clients with renal failure due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium. Hemodialysis helps to remove excess potassium from the bloodstream, thereby decreasing its levels.

Choice C rationale
Calcium levels can be affected by hemodialysis; however, they are more often managed with medication and diet rather than being directly targeted by the dialysis process itself.

Choice D rationale
Protein levels should not decrease significantly as a result of hemodialysis. The dialysis membrane is designed to allow small waste products to pass through while retaining larger molecules like proteins.


Question 6: View

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results from a client who has prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse expect?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
In prerenal AKI, the kidneys are not receiving enough blood flow. As a result, they cannot filter potassium out of the blood efficiently, leading to hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. This condition is dangerous because it can cause cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness.

Choice B rationale
Hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level, is not typically associated with prerenal AKI. It is more commonly related to dehydration or an excessive intake of sodium, which are not direct consequences of prerenal AKI.

Choice C rationale
Hypercalcemia, an elevated calcium level, is also not a common finding in prerenal AKI. It is usually associated with other conditions such as hyperparathyroidism or malignancy.

Choice D rationale
Hypophosphatemia, a low level of phosphate in the blood, is not a typical result of prerenal AKI. It can occur due to malnutrition or malabsorption, but it is not directly caused by prerenal AKI.

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) - Prerenal,Intrarenal,Postrenal - YouTube


Question 7: View

A nurse is gathering medical history from a client admitted for pyelonephritis. Which of the following should the nurse expect the client to report when asked about their medical history?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
A high calcium diet and hypercalcemia are not directly associated with pyelonephritis. While dietary habits and blood calcium levels can impact overall health, they do not typically contribute to the development of pyelonephritis.

Choice B rationale
Long-term use of ibuprofen can lead to kidney damage, which may increase the risk of pyelonephritis, especially if there is pre-existing kidney impairment. However, it is not as directly related to pyelonephritis as a history of UTIs.

Choice C rationale
A history of UTIs is relevant to pyelonephritis, as the infection can ascend from the lower urinary tract to the kidneys. Recurrent UTIs are a risk factor for pyelonephritis, making this the most likely report from the client.

Choice D rationale
Genetic diseases can have various impacts on health, but there is no common genetic disease that directly causes pyelonephritis. This choice is less likely to be relevant to the client's current condition.


Question 8: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has an acute kidney injury caused by acute tubular necrosis. The client asks why their glomerular filtration rate (GFR) keeps decreasing. Which of the following pathophysiological changes occurring in the kidney should the nurse explain as the cause of the decrease?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
While inflammation can affect the kidneys, the presence of inflammatory cells alone does not typically cause a decrease in GFR. Inflammatory cells invading the kidneys is more associated with conditions like glomerulonephritis rather than acute tubular necrosis.

Choice B rationale
A reduction in blood flow to the kidneys, known as prerenal azotemia, can indeed lead to a decreased GFR. However, in the context of acute tubular necrosis, the primary issue is damage to the renal tubules rather than blood flow.

Choice C rationale
Acute tubular necrosis is characterized by damage to the renal tubular cells, which can lead to a decrease in GFR. This damage impairs the kidney's ability to filter waste products from the blood, resulting in a lower GFR.

Choice D rationale
Obstruction of the urinary tract can lead to postrenal azotemia, which may decrease GFR if severe enough. However, this is not the typical pathophysiological change seen in acute tubular necrosis, which primarily involves tubular cell injury.


Question 9: View

A female patient with a suspected urinary tract infection is to provide a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. What should the nurse do to obtain the specimen?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
This method is the standard procedure for obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The initial voiding washes away organisms near the meatus, and the midstream urine is less likely to be contaminated by bacteria from the skin or urethral area, providing a sample that more accurately represents the bacteria in the bladder.

Choice B rationale
Having the patient empty the bladder completely and then obtaining the next specimen does not ensure a clean-catch sample. This method could lead to contamination of the specimen with bacteria from the skin or urethral area.

Choice C rationale
Cleaning the area with povidone-iodine is not recommended for routine urine culture as it may kill some of the bacteria, leading to a false-negative result. The standard practice is to clean the area with mild soap and water.

Choice D rationale
Inserting a catheter is an invasive procedure and is not the first choice for obtaining a urine specimen. It is used when a patient is unable to provide a clean-catch specimen or if there are specific medical indications.


Question 10: View

A patient is admitted with esophageal varices and portal hypertension. Which underlying cause of these conditions would the nurse suspect?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Liver cirrhosis is the most common cause of esophageal varices and portal hypertension. Cirrhosis leads to scarring of the liver, which impedes blood flow through the portal vein, causing increased pressure (portal hypertension) and the development of collateral blood vessels (varices) as the body attempts to bypass the blockage.

Choice B rationale
Throat lacerations are not related to the development of esophageal varices or portal hypertension. They are typically acute injuries and do not cause the chronic changes seen in the vasculature associated with these conditions.

Choice C rationale
Kyphosis, a curvature of the spine, does not cause esophageal varices or portal hypertension. It is a structural skeletal condition and does not affect the vasculature of the esophagus or the portal venous system.

Choice D rationale
While squamous cell cancer can occur in the esophagus, it is not a typical cause of portal hypertension or esophageal varices. These varices are usually a result of increased pressure in the portal vein, not directly from a malignancy.


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