Ati med surg nurs 300 day exam 4

Ati med surg nurs 300 day exam 4

Total Questions : 55

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Question 1: View

The nurse would check for leaks in the chest tube and water seal system when:

Explanation

A. There is continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests a potential air leak in the system, which needs to be investigated. The water-seal chamber is designed to prevent backflow of air into the pleural space, and persistent bubbling typically indicates that air is escaping from the pleural cavity or there is a problem with the tubing or chest tube placement. This is the first sign that the system may not be sealed properly and should be checked for leaks.

B. The water levels in the water-seal chamber and suction chambers are decreased: Decreased water levels in both the water-seal and suction chambers may be indicative of fluid loss or evaporation, but it does not necessarily point to a leak. In the case of a chest tube, water levels may also drop due to suction pressure or gradual evaporation, which would need to be adjusted or monitored. While this should be addressed, it is not an immediate cause for suspicion of an air leak in the system.

C. Fluid in the water-seal chamber fluctuates with the client's breathing: The fluctuation (also known as "tidaling") in the water-seal chamber is a normal finding that occurs when the client breathes in and out. It reflects the pressure changes in the pleural cavity during respiration. The absence of tidaling might indicate that the lung has re-expanded or that there is a blockage in the tubing. While tidaling is a normal occurrence, the absence or abnormality of this fluctuation would require further assessment but not for an air leak.

D. There is constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber: Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber generally indicates that suction is appropriately applied to the system. However, if there is continuous bubbling in this chamber, it is typically related to the level of suction being applied, not an air leak. This is a normal occurrence and does not require checking for leaks in the system unless suction pressure is too high or low for optimal functioning.


Question 2: View

The nurse is to begin a nitroglycerin infusion for a client diagnosed with an anterior wall myocardial infarction. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Explanation

A. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L: A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is slightly elevated but is still within a potentially acceptable range (normal is 3.5-5.3 mEq/L). While elevated potassium can be a concern, particularly in the context of an MI or with certain medications (like potassium-sparing diuretics), this level is not critically high. The nurse should monitor the potassium levels, but this is not an urgent finding requiring immediate reporting unless it increases further or is accompanied by significant symptoms (such as arrhythmias).

B. T wave depression on electrocardiogram (ECG): T wave depression can be a sign of ischemia or injury, which is common in the setting of an acute myocardial infarction. However, T wave changes are expected in this context and do not indicate an immediate emergency. The nurse should continue to monitor the ECG for any progression or worsening of ischemic changes but should prioritize concerns such as hypotension or worsening clinical status over this finding.

C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is within normal limits (60-100 beats per minute), especially in the early stages of an MI. Nitroglycerin may cause a reflex tachycardia as a compensatory response to the decreased blood pressure, but a heart rate of 90 bpm is not an alarming finding. The nurse should continue to monitor the heart rate, but it is not the most pressing concern compared to hypotension. 4o mini

D. Blood pressure of 90/50: A blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg is significantly low and could indicate that the client is experiencing hypotension, which is a known side effect of nitroglycerin infusion. Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, which can reduce blood pressure, especially in clients who are already at risk due to an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Low blood pressure can compromise perfusion to vital organs, including the heart, brain, and kidneys, and may lead to shock if not corrected promptly. This finding should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider, as it may require adjustment of the nitroglycerin dosage or discontinuation of the infusion.


Question 3: View

A nurse is providing teaching to a client newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease who is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa. What should be included in client teaching?

Explanation

A. This is a safe medication that is associated with minimal side effects: Carbidopa/levodopa is an effective medication for managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, but it is not without side effects. Common side effects include nausea, dizziness, dyskinesia (involuntary movements), and orthostatic hypotension. It is important to be honest with clients about the potential side effects and manage them proactively, rather than describing the medication as "safe with minimal side effects," which could lead to underestimating the risks.

B. Stop the medication if there is increased urination: Increased urination is not a common or typical side effect of carbidopa/levodopa. In fact, the medication is more likely to cause urinary retention or difficulty urinating in some cases. The client should not stop taking the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Any urinary changes should be reported, but abrupt discontinuation of the medication is not advised without medical supervision.

C. Change position slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension: One of the common side effects of carbidopa/levodopa therapy is orthostatic hypotension, which occurs when a person experiences a drop in blood pressure upon standing up. This can lead to dizziness or fainting, increasing the risk of falls. The client should be educated to change positions slowly, such as sitting up slowly and standing up gradually from a lying position, to minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension. This is a critical aspect of safety and should be emphasized as part of the teaching.

D. Double the dose if a dose is missed at the next scheduled time: Doubling the dose of carbidopa/levodopa if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose, which may cause serious side effects, including dyskinesias or other complications. Clients should be instructed to take the missed dose as soon as they remember, unless it is almost time for the next dose. In that case, they should skip the missed dose and continue with their regular dosing schedule. It is important to never double the dose without guidance from the healthcare provider.


Question 4: View

The nurse administers IV nitroglycerin to a client diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction. In evaluating the effectiveness of this intervention, the nurse should monitor for:

Explanation

A. Decrease in heart rate: While nitroglycerin can sometimes cause reflex tachycardia (an increase in heart rate) as a compensatory mechanism in response to a decrease in blood pressure, its primary effect is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand through vasodilation. Although heart rate may decrease in some situations due to improved perfusion or as a secondary response to pain relief, a decrease in heart rate is not the most reliable or immediate indicator of effectiveness in this context. The relief of chest pain is a more direct measure of the drug's impact.

B. Relief of chest pain: Nitroglycerin works by dilating blood vessels, which reduces myocardial oxygen demand and improves blood flow to the heart, particularly in cases of acute myocardial infarction (MI). The primary therapeutic goal is to relieve chest pain (angina) and reduce the workload of the heart. Monitoring for relief of chest pain is the most direct and important indicator of the medication's effectiveness. If the chest pain decreases or resolves, it suggests that the medication is helping to alleviate the ischemia caused by the MI.

C. Decrease in cardiac dysrhythmias: Nitroglycerin is not primarily used to treat dysrhythmias, although improved perfusion and reduced myocardial oxygen demand may indirectly reduce the occurrence of dysrhythmias in some cases. However, a decrease in dysrhythmias is not a primary goal of nitroglycerin therapy, and the nurse should not primarily monitor for this outcome. Any dysrhythmias should be managed with other specific interventions if needed.

D. Decrease in blood pressure: Nitroglycerin's vasodilatory effect does lead to a reduction in blood pressure, particularly in patients with high blood pressure or in the context of a myocardial infarction. However, excessive hypotension can be dangerous and may lead to inadequate perfusion of vital organs. The nurse must monitor blood pressure closely to avoid hypotension, but a decrease in blood pressure is not the main goal of therapy. The primary objective is to relieve the chest pain associated with the MI. If blood pressure drops too low, it may indicate a need to adjust the dose or discontinue the nitroglycerin.


Question 5: View

The nurse monitors the client in the immediate hours following an anterior-lateral wall myocardial infarction for the development of:

Explanation

A. A systolic murmur: A systolic murmur is often associated with valvular heart disease, particularly mitral regurgitation, which can sometimes result from papillary muscle dysfunction after a myocardial infarction. However, a systolic murmur is not a typical or immediate complication following an anterior-lateral wall MI. The focus in the early hours after an MI should be on more acute complications, such as dysrhythmias and hemodynamic stability, rather than a murmur, which may develop more gradually over time.

B. Ventricular dysrhythmias: Ventricular dysrhythmias are one of the most common and life-threatening complications in the immediate hours following an acute myocardial infarction (MI), especially with an anterior-lateral wall MI. These dysrhythmias occur due to the electrical disturbances caused by myocardial injury and ischemia. The heart muscle becomes more susceptible to abnormal electrical activity after the infarction, and monitoring for ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation is crucial. These arrhythmias can lead to sudden cardiac arrest, which is why they are a high priority for monitoring in the immediate post-MI period.

C. A pericardial friction rub: A pericardial friction rub is a sign of pericarditis, which can occur after an MI, particularly several days to a week later, rather than in the immediate post-MI period. While pericarditis is a possible complication of MI, it is less likely to present immediately after the infarction, especially in the first few hours. The nurse should monitor for pericarditis, but it is not as high a priority as dysrhythmias during the first hours after MI.

D. Renal insufficiency: While renal insufficiency can develop as a result of poor perfusion or shock following a myocardial infarction, it is not one of the most immediate or common complications to watch for in the first hours after an anterior-lateral MI. The primary concern in this acute phase is monitoring for cardiovascular complications, such as dysrhythmias, rather than renal function. Renal insufficiency would be a secondary concern, particularly if the patient is hypotensive or experiencing other signs of multi-organ involvement.


Question 6: View

The nurse is caring for a client with the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaCO2 33 mmHg, Pa02 88 mmHg, HCO3 16 mEg/L. The nurse would Interpret these results as:

Table 9.9 Normal Arterial Blood Gas Values

ABG Value.                                                             Normal Value

pH                                                                             7.35-7.45

PaCO2                                                                                                            35-45 mmHg

HCO3-                                                                         22-25mEq/L

Base excess                                                               -2 to +2

PaO2                                                                            80-95 mmHg

SaO2                                                                            >95%

Explanation

A. Fully compensated respiratory acidosis: Fully compensated respiratory acidosis would involve a low pH (indicative of acidosis), elevated PaCO2 (due to impaired ventilation), and a normal HCO3 level as compensation by the kidneys. The given ABG results show metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation, not respiratory acidosis.

B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis: In respiratory acidosis, you would expect an elevated PaCO2 (not low, as seen here) and a compensatory increase in HCO3. However, the ABG results show low HCO3 and low PaCO2, indicating that this is metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis.

C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis: Uncompensated metabolic acidosis would be indicated by a low pH and low bicarbonate (HCO3), with normal PaCO2. Since the PaCO2 is low, this suggests partial respiratory compensation, making this scenario not uncompensated but partially compensated.

D. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis: To interpret these ABG results, let's break down the values:

pH 7.32 (normal range: 7.35–7.45) indicates acidosis, as it is below the normal range.

PaCO2 33 mmHg (normal range: 35–45 mmHg) is low, suggesting that respiratory compensation is occurring to counteract the acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, the lungs typically attempt to blow off CO2 to reduce acid levels, which is why PaCO2 is low here.

HCO3 16 mEq/L (normal range: 22–25 mEq/L) is low, confirming a metabolic acidosis. The low bicarbonate level is characteristic of metabolic acidosis, where the body loses too much bicarbonate or produces too much acid. PaO2 88 mmHg (normal range: 80–95 mmHg) is within the normal range and does not indicate a significant respiratory issue.


Question 7: View

A patient is prescribed 500 ml of Normal Saline to be infused over 90 minutes. The drop factor on the tubing is 10 gtt/mL. At what rate should the nurse regulate the IV (gtt/min)? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Explanation

Calculate the infusion rate in mL/min.

The total volume to be infused is 500 mL.

The infusion time is 90 minutes.

The infusion rate = 500 mL / 90 minutes = 5.5556 mL/min.

Calculate the drip rate in gtt/min.

The drop factor is 10 gtt/mL.

We need to deliver 5.5556 mL/min.

To find the drip rate, we can set up a proportion:

10 gtt / 1 mL = x gtt / 5.5556 mL

Cross-multiplying:

x = 10 gtt/mL x 5.5556 mL = 55.5556 gtt

Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

56 gtt/min.


Question 8: View

The nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis (MG) taking pyridostigmine. The nurse understands teaching has been effective when the client states, "I will

Explanation

A. Use pyridostigmine as needed to relieve symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue: Pyridostigmine should not be used on an "as-needed" basis, as it is a long-acting medication that works by maintaining a steady level of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The client needs to take the medication regularly at prescribed intervals, not sporadically, to maintain consistent symptom control. This statement reflects a misunderstanding of the medication's use.

B. Be able to crush the sustained release tablet because of difficulty swallowing: Sustained-release (or extended-release) tablets should not be crushed because doing so can cause the medication to be released too quickly, leading to potential side effects or overdose. If the client has difficulty swallowing, an alternative form of the medication, such as a liquid or split tablet, should be considered. This statement reflects a lack of understanding regarding the proper administration of the medication.

C. Skip a dose if I have symptoms of fatigue to minimize side effects of the medications: Skipping doses of pyridostigmine is not appropriate. The medication should be taken as prescribed, even if the client feels fatigued. Fatigue is a symptom of myasthenia gravis, not necessarily a side effect of the medication. Consistent dosing is important for controlling the disease and preventing worsening of symptoms. Skipping doses can lead to inadequate symptom control and potential exacerbation of weakness.

D. Take pyridostigmine 30-60 minutes before meals to improve muscle function: This statement indicates that the client understands the appropriate use of pyridostigmine for managing myasthenia gravis (MG). Pyridostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that helps improve neuromuscular transmission, and it is typically taken 30-60 minutes before meals. This timing helps optimize muscle strength during the period when the client is eating, as muscle weakness can make swallowing more difficult. By taking the medication before meals, the client is more likely to experience improved muscle function when needed most.


Question 9: View

The nurse is caring for a client in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The chest x-ray displays evidence of pulmonary edema. The nurse assesses the client for which clinical manifestation?

Explanation

A. Wheezes on inspiration: Wheezing is typically associated with obstructive pulmonary conditions, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and is caused by narrowing of the airways. In ARDS, the pathophysiology involves inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which leads to impaired oxygen exchange but not typically to wheezing. Instead, crackles or rales (a fine, wet sound) are more commonly heard on auscultation in ARDS, particularly as fluid builds up in the alveoli.

B. Blood pressure 170/90: Although ARDS can be associated with hemodynamic instability, elevated blood pressure (170/90 mmHg) is not a typical finding. In fact, ARDS is more commonly associated with low blood pressure or hypotension, particularly if the client is experiencing shock or is on mechanical ventilation. Elevated blood pressure could suggest another issue, such as pain, anxiety, or the use of medications like vasopressors. It is not directly related to the pulmonary edema seen in ARDS.

C. Tachypnea: Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a hallmark clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). In ARDS, pulmonary edema (fluid accumulation in the lungs) occurs as a result of damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to impaired gas exchange. The body attempts to compensate for decreased oxygenation by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to tachypnea. This is an early sign of respiratory distress and often precedes hypoxemia and other more severe manifestations. The nurse should closely monitor for tachypnea, as it can indicate worsening respiratory compromise.

D. Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with ARDS. In fact, tachycardia (an elevated heart rate) is more commonly seen in response to hypoxia, respiratory distress, or as a compensatory mechanism for low blood pressure in critical illness. Bradycardia could indicate other issues such as vagal stimulation, medication effects, or electrolyte imbalances but is not characteristic of ARDS itself. 4o mini


Question 10: View

The nurse assessing the client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease (PD) would expect which of the following assessment findings?

Explanation

A. Muscle rigidity and bradykinesia: Parkinson's disease (PD) is characterized by a combination of motor symptoms due to the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. The hallmark motor symptoms include muscle rigidity (stiffness of muscles, making movement difficult) and bradykinesia (slowness of movement). These symptoms are typically present early in the disease and can lead to difficulties with daily activities such as walking, speaking, and performing fine motor tasks. These two signs are primary indicators of Parkinson's disease.

B. Facial pain and ptosis: Facial pain and ptosis (drooping eyelids) are not typical symptoms of Parkinson's disease. PD can affect facial expression (resulting in a masked face), but it does not usually cause facial pain. Ptosis is more commonly seen in conditions like Horner's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, or as a side effect of medications, but it is not a hallmark symptom of Parkinson's disease.

C. Diarrhea and nausea: While gastrointestinal symptoms such as constipation can be seen in Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction and decreased gut motility, diarrhea and nausea are not typical primary symptoms. In fact, constipation is a more common issue in PD. Nausea could result from the use of medications like levodopa, but it is not a defining feature of the disease itself.

D. Ecchymosis and petechiae: Ecchymosis (bruising) and petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin) are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease. These findings are more often associated with platelet disorders, bleeding disorders, or vascular conditions. While Parkinson's disease can involve complications like falls (which could lead to bruising), these are not direct symptoms of the disease itself. The primary symptoms involve motor and autonomic dysfunction.


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