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nurs 180 Pharmacology Final Exam
ATI nurs 180 Pharmacology Final Exam
Total Questions : 71
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA client is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) while admitted in the inpatient setting. Which of the following conditions can occur if the nurse abruptly stops TPN?
Explanation
A. Diarrhea is not a direct risk of stopping TPN abruptly.
B. Abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia because the high glucose content in TPN leads to increased insulin production. Without the continuous glucose infusion, blood sugar levels can drop rapidly.
C. Hypovolemia is not a common outcome from stopping TPN suddenly.
D. Erythema at the site is unrelated to the cessation of TPN and more commonly related to local site reactions or infection.
The nurse is caring for an 18-year-old client who has recently been prescribed montelukast. Which statement made by the client indicates understanding of the newly prescribed medication?
Explanation
A. Anaphylaxis is not a common side effect of montelukast.
B. Regular blood monitoring is not required with montelukast.
C. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, used for long-term management of asthma and to prevent exercise-induced bronchoconstriction.
D. Montelukast is not intended for immediate relief or repeated dosing in acute situations.
A client is taking pyridostigmine for muscle weakness associated with myasthenia gravis. The nurse educates the client on which possible cholinergic side effects associated with this medication? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
A. Dry mouth is not a cholinergic side effect; cholinergic effects typically increase secretions.
B. Diarrhea is a common cholinergic side effect due to increased gastrointestinal motility.
C. Decreased urination is not expected; cholinergic agents may increase urination.
D. Excessive lacrimation (tearing) is a common cholinergic effect, as these agents stimulate glandular secretions.
E. Tachycardia is not a cholinergic side effect; bradycardia is more likely due to cholinergic effects.
F. Excessive sweating is a cholinergic effect due to increased glandular activity.
The nurse is caring for a client currently taking oxymetazoline. Which of the following statements should the nurse include regarding oxymetazoline?
Explanation
A. Oxymetazoline should not be used for more than 3 days because prolonged use can lead to rebound congestion.
B. Oxymetazoline typically does not cause drowsiness, so taking it at bedtime is not necessary.
C. Oxymetazoline has a rapid onset and should not take a week to show effects.
D. Oxymetazoline is a nasal decongestant and is not used for asthma management.
A client newly prescribed niacin (Nicotinic Acid) presents to the healthcare setting with complaints of flushing following doses. Which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate being administered?
Explanation
A. Beta blockers are used to manage blood pressure and heart rate but are not effective in reducing niacin-induced flushing.
B. Calcium channel blockers help to relax blood vessels but do not address the flushing side effect caused by niacin.
C. NSAIDs, like aspirin, can help reduce the flushing associated with niacin. This flushing occurs due to prostaglandin release, which NSAIDs can inhibit.
D. While fibric acid derivatives are used to lower cholesterol, they do not alleviate the flushing side effect of niacin.
A client is prescribed antibiotics while pending the results of their wound culture. The nurse understands this method of medication therapy is known as:
Explanation
A. Prophylactic therapy is used to prevent infection in at-risk individuals, not to treat suspected infections before confirming lab results.
B. Palliative therapy is intended for symptom relief, often in cases where curing the disease is not the goal.
C. Maintenance therapy is designed to maintain health stability rather than to treat suspected infections without lab confirmation.
D. Empiric therapy involves starting treatment based on clinical judgment before lab results are available. This approach is useful to manage infections promptly when waiting for cultures could delay necessary care.
A client diagnosed with strep throat requires antibiotics for treatment. With an allergy to penicillin, the nurse understands which medication should be avoided due to cross-sensitivity with penicillin medications?
Explanation
A. Macrolides, such as azithromycin and erythromycin, have a low cross-reactivity with penicillin and are typically safe alternatives for those with penicillin allergies.
B. Sulfonamides are not structurally similar to penicillins and generally do not have cross-sensitivity issues with penicillin allergies.
C. Cephalosporins share a similar beta-lactam structure to penicillins, which can result in cross-sensitivity in some individuals with a penicillin allergy. For this reason, they should be avoided or used with caution in these clients.
D. Tetracyclines have a different structure from penicillins and are usually safe for clients with penicillin allergies.
A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.
A nurse is assessing a client who is lethargic, diaphoretic, and difficult to arouse. The client's blood sugar result was 40 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates which of the following to be administered?
Explanation
A. Glucose tablets are appropriate for clients with mild hypoglycemia who are alert and able to chew and swallow; they are not suitable for someone who is difficult to arouse.
B. Epinephrine is not used as a treatment for hypoglycemia; it does not directly increase blood glucose levels.
C. IVP (intravenous push) dextrose 50% is indicated for severe hypoglycemia in clients who are lethargic or unresponsive, as it rapidly increases blood glucose levels.
D. Orange juice is effective for mild hypoglycemia but is not appropriate in this case due to the client’s altered mental status and risk of aspiration.
A client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl). The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which contraindication associated with this medication?
Explanation
A. Grapefruit juice does not have a known interaction with metronidazole and does not need to be avoided.
B. Dairy does not interfere with metronidazole's absorption or effectiveness, so it is not a contraindication.
C. Alcohol should be strictly avoided during and for at least 48 hours after metronidazole treatment, as it can cause a severe reaction, including nausea, vomiting, flushing, and rapid heart rate.
D. Tyramine-based foods do not interact with metronidazole, so they are not a contraindication for this medication.
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