Wright NRSG 110 Exam 2

Wright NRSG 110 Exam 2

Total Questions : 49

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Question 1: View

The nurse is caring for a client in the ED just arriving with severe chest pain, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and jugular distention. What will be the most important thing the nurse will do within the first 10 minutes?

Explanation

A. Administer aspirin:

Aspirin is commonly given to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it helps to inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of further clot formation. However, the administration of aspirin typically follows the confirmation of a cardiac event through diagnostic tests like the ECG. Aspirin is not the initial priority compared to obtaining diagnostic data.

B. 12 Lead Electrocardiography (ECG):

This is the most critical and time-sensitive action because it helps to quickly assess the patient's cardiac status. A 12 Lead ECG can identify important findings such as ST-segment elevation or depression, which are indicative of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) or other cardiac abnormalities. Early detection and intervention are crucial in improving outcomes for patients with suspected cardiac events.

C. Assess vital signs:

Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, provide valuable information about the patient's overall condition and can help determine the severity of the cardiac event. While assessing vital signs is important, performing the ECG takes precedence due to its immediate relevance in diagnosing and managing a potential cardiac emergency.

D. Administer morphine:

Morphine may be indicated for pain relief in patients with acute coronary syndromes. However, its administration should be based on the patient's pain level, hemodynamic stability, and other factors assessed after obtaining the ECG and vital signs. Morphine administration is not the primary action within the first 10 minutes of the patient's arrival; it follows the initial assessment and diagnostic procedures.


Question 2: View

Family members bring a client to the ED with pale cool skin, sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, and a history of CAD. How should the nurse best interpret these initial data?

Explanation

A. The symptoms indicate an acute coronary episode and should be treated as such:

The client's symptoms, including sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest and a history of coronary artery disease (CAD), strongly suggest an acute coronary event, such as a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Pale, cool skin can also be indicative of decreased perfusion due to cardiac compromise. Given these critical signs and symptoms, the nurse should interpret this as a potential cardiac emergency and initiate immediate interventions aimed at managing and stabilizing the client's condition.

B. The symptoms indicate angina and should be treated as such:

While angina can present with symptoms such as chest pain, it is typically relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. In contrast, the client in this scenario has midsternal chest pain that is not relieved with rest, which is more indicative of an acute coronary event like a myocardial infarction. Therefore, interpreting the symptoms as angina and treating them as such may not be appropriate given the severity and persistence of the chest pain.

C. Treatment should be determined pending the results of an exercise stress test:

Waiting for the results of an exercise stress test is not appropriate in this scenario, as the client's presentation suggests an acute cardiac event that requires immediate intervention. Exercise stress tests are typically used for diagnostic purposes to assess cardiovascular function under controlled conditions but are not suitable for managing acute coronary episodes or emergencies.

D. The symptoms indicate a pulmonary etiology rather than a cardiac etiology:

While some symptoms, such as shortness of breath or chest pain, can overlap between cardiac and pulmonary conditions, the client's presentation with sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, pale cool skin, and a history of CAD strongly suggests a cardiac etiology, specifically an acute coronary event. It is essential to prioritize cardiac assessment and intervention based on the client's symptoms and medical history.


Question 3: View

A client is prescribed ferrous sulfate 325 mg BID. What education should the nurse provide about this medication? (Select All that Apply.)

Explanation

A. Take the medication with milk to increase absorption:

This statement is incorrect. Taking ferrous sulfate with milk or dairy products is not recommended as they can decrease iron absorption. It's advisable to take iron supplements with water or juice, preferably on an empty stomach or with a small amount of food.

B. Take the medication on an empty stomach:

This statement is partially correct. While taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach can enhance absorption, some individuals may experience gastrointestinal discomfort or irritation. Therefore, it's often recommended to take iron supplements with a small amount of food to minimize potential side effects.

C. Eat foods high in fiber while on this medication:

This statement is generally correct. Consuming foods high in fiber can help prevent constipation, which is a common side effect of iron supplements. Including fiber-rich foods in the diet, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes, can promote regular bowel movements.

D. Report stools that are dark in color immediately:

This statement is correct. Dark or black stools can indicate the presence of digested blood, which may occur due to iron supplementation. It's important to report such changes to the healthcare provider promptly for further evaluation.

E. Eating citrus fruit and juices are recommended with meals:

This statement is correct. Citrus fruits and juices, such as oranges, grapefruits, and lemon juice, contain vitamin C, which can enhance iron absorption. Consuming vitamin C-rich foods or drinks along with iron supplements can help improve iron uptake by the body.


Question 4: View

A brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) sample has been drawn from an older adult client who has been experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. This test will allow the care team to investigate the possibility of what diagnosis?

Explanation

A. Pleurisy:

Pleurisy is inflammation of the pleura, which is the lining surrounding the lungs. It can cause sharp chest pain that worsens with breathing. While pleurisy can be associated with conditions such as infections, pneumonia, or pulmonary embolism, it is not typically directly diagnosed or investigated using the brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) test. The symptoms of pleurisy may include chest pain, especially with deep breathing, coughing, or sneezing.

B. Cardiomyopathy:

Cardiomyopathy refers to diseases of the heart muscle, which can lead to impaired heart function. Cardiomyopathy can cause symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, and fluid retention. While elevated BNP levels can be observed in some cases of cardiomyopathy, the BNP test is not specific to cardiomyopathy alone. It is often used to assess and diagnose heart failure, a condition that can result from various cardiac abnormalities, including cardiomyopathy.

C. Valve Dysfunction:

Valve dysfunction refers to abnormalities or malfunctions of the heart valves, such as stenosis (narrowing) or regurgitation (leakage). Valve dysfunction can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations, and fatigue. While valve dysfunction can contribute to heart failure by causing pressure and volume overload on the heart chambers, the BNP test is primarily used to assess heart failure itself rather than specifically identifying valve dysfunction.

D. Heart Failure:

Heart failure is a condition in which the heart is unable to pump blood effectively to meet the body's needs. It can cause symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, fluid retention (edema), and exercise intolerance. Elevated BNP levels are commonly observed in patients with heart failure, especially in cases of acute exacerbations or decompensated heart failure. The BNP test is used to assess and diagnose heart failure, as higher BNP levels indicate increased cardiac stress and volume overload.


Question 5: View

The nurse caring for a client receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the client is having difficulty breathing and complains of severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?

Explanation

A. Remove the client's IV access:

Removing the client's IV access is not the most appropriate initial action when a client experiences difficulty breathing and severe chest tightness during a transfusion. While it's important to discontinue the infusion, the immediate priority is to stop the transfusion itself to prevent further reaction and assess the client's condition.

B. Assess the client's chest sounds and vital signs:

This choice is the correct answer. After stopping the transfusion, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory status by listening to chest sounds for any wheezing or crackles, as well as checking vital signs such as oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate. These assessments help evaluate the severity of the reaction and guide further interventions.

C. Notify the client's healthcare provider:

Notifying the healthcare provider is an essential step, but it typically follows the immediate action of stopping the transfusion and assessing the client's condition. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly about the client's condition, transfusion reaction, and the actions taken for further guidance and orders.

D. Stop the transfusion immediately:

This is the initial and most critical action when a client experiences signs of a transfusion reaction such as difficulty breathing and severe chest tightness. Stopping the transfusion promptly helps prevent the reaction from worsening and allows for immediate assessment and intervention to ensure client safety.


Question 6: View

A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to identify the client? (Select All that Apply.)

Explanation

A. Confirm that the room number matches the medical record.Room numbers should never be used as a sole method to identify a client. Room assignments can change, and relying on them could lead to errors.

B. Compare the client identification number to the blood component tag number.Matching the client identification number to the blood component tag ensures the blood is being administered to the correct client. This is a key step in preventing transfusion errors.

C. Verify the provider's prescription with another RN.While this is an important step in the blood administration process, it is not specifically related to identifying the client.

D. Ask the client to verbalize if the blood type is Rh-negative or positive.Clients may not know their blood type, and relying on their verbal confirmation is unsafe. The blood type must be confirmed through laboratory testing and matched with the blood being administered.

E. Scan the barcode on the client's identification band.Scanning the barcode on the client’s identification band is a reliable and commonly used method for verifying the client’s identity in modern healthcare settings. This ensures that the blood is administered to the correct client.


Question 7: View

The nurse is collecting data for a client who has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What subjective findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms related to this type of anemia?

Explanation

A. "I have a difficult time falling asleep at night":

Difficulty falling asleep at night is not typically a direct symptom of iron-deficiency anemia. While anemia can lead to fatigue and general tiredness, which might affect sleep quality, insomnia or difficulty falling asleep may have various causes unrelated to anemia. These causes can include stress, anxiety, poor sleep hygiene, or other underlying medical conditions.

B. "I have an increase in my appetite":

This choice is not directly related to iron-deficiency anemia. While some individuals with anemia may experience changes in appetite, such as increased hunger, this symptom is not specific to iron-deficiency anemia alone. An increase in appetite can have various causes, including hormonal changes, dietary changes, medications, or psychological factors.

C. "I have difficulty breathing when walking 30 feet":

This choice is the correct answer. Difficulty breathing, especially during exertion like walking, is a hallmark symptom of iron-deficiency anemia. Anemia reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues, which can result in shortness of breath, fatigue, and difficulty with physical activities.

D. "I feel hot all of the time":

Feeling hot all the time is not a specific symptom of iron-deficiency anemia. While anemia can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, pale skin, and shortness of breath, it does not directly lead to a constant feeling of heat or warmth throughout the body. Feeling hot or experiencing excessive sweating could be due to other factors such as hormonal changes, fever, hyperthyroidism, or environmental conditions.


Question 8: View

The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. What would the nurse expect to find?

Explanation

A. Ascending edema:

Ascending edema, also known as dependent edema, is typically associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure. In right-sided heart failure, the heart's ability to pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation is compromised, leading to fluid backup in the systemic circulation. This fluid accumulates in the dependent areas of the body, such as the lower extremities (legs and ankles), causing swelling that can ascend upwards if left untreated. However, ascending edema is not a characteristic finding in left-sided heart failure, where pulmonary congestion and orthopnea are more common manifestations.

B. The client has no desire to eat:

While decreased appetite can occur in heart failure due to various factors such as fluid retention, abdominal bloating, or medication side effects, it is not a specific hallmark of left-sided heart failure. Symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea (shortness of breath), orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying flat), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. These symptoms result from the impaired function of the left ventricle, leading to pulmonary congestion and inadequate oxygenation.

C. The client sleeps on three pillows at night:

This choice is the correct answer. Sleeping on three pillows at night is a classic manifestation of orthopnea, a condition commonly seen in left-sided heart failure. Orthopnea refers to difficulty breathing while lying flat, which is alleviated by elevating the head and upper body with multiple pillows or sleeping in a semi-upright position. Orthopnea occurs due to the redistribution of fluid from the legs and lower body to the lungs when lying down, resulting in pulmonary congestion and respiratory distress.

D. The client has a five-pound weight gain:

Weight gain is a common symptom of fluid retention in heart failure; however, a specific weight gain of five pounds alone may not be indicative of left-sided heart failure without considering other clinical signs and symptoms. In heart failure, weight gain is often associated with fluid overload, which can lead to edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and other signs of congestion. It's important to assess the client comprehensively for fluid status, including evaluating for edema, respiratory symptoms, and changes in weight over time, to determine the underlying cause of weight gain.


Question 9: View

A nurse is teaching about risk factors that increase the probability of coronary artery disease to a community group. Which risk factors will the nurse Include in the discussion? (Select All that Apply.)

Explanation

A. History of smoking:

Smoking is a well-established risk factor for coronary artery disease (CAD). Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that damage blood vessels, promote the formation of atherosclerotic plaques, and increase the risk of blood clots, all of which can lead to CAD, heart attacks, and strokes.

B. Body mass index (BMI) of 20:

While obesity and elevated BMI are risk factors for CAD, a BMI of 20 falls within the healthy weight range for most adults. However, it's important to note that BMI alone may not fully capture an individual's overall cardiovascular risk, as factors like body composition, waist circumference, diet, and physical activity level also contribute to heart health.

C. History of diabetes:

Diabetes, especially type 2 diabetes, is a significant risk factor for CAD. Elevated blood sugar levels over time can damage blood vessels (atherosclerosis), increase inflammation, and contribute to other metabolic abnormalities that raise the risk of heart disease, including heart attacks and peripheral vascular disease.

D. Family history of coronary heart disease:

Having a family history of coronary heart disease (CHD) or premature heart attacks (before age 55 in men or before age 65 in women) increases the risk of developing CAD. Genetic factors play a role in the development of heart disease, and individuals with close relatives affected by CHD have a higher likelihood of developing similar conditions.

E. Female gender:

While gender can influence cardiovascular risk factors and presentation, being female alone is not considered a specific risk factor for CAD. However, women may have different risk profiles or risk factors compared to men, such as hormonal influences (e.g., menopause) and unique symptom presentation for heart disease.

F. Age greater than 45 years for men:

Advancing age is a significant risk factor for CAD, especially for men. Men aged 45 years and older are at increased risk compared to younger age groups due to factors such as the cumulative effects of risk factors over time, hormonal changes, and age-related changes in blood vessels and heart function.


Question 10: View

A client is scheduled for a transthoracic echocardiography (TTE). What should the nurse teach the client in anticipation of this diagnostic procedure?

Explanation

A. The test is noninvasive, and nothing will be inserted into the client's body: Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is a noninvasive procedure that uses ultrasound waves to create images of the heart. It involves placing a transducer on the chest wall to capture images of the heart's structure and function. The nurse should inform the client that no instruments or devices will be inserted into their body during the test.

B. The client will remain on bed rest for 1 to 2 hours after the test: This statement is not typically accurate for a TTE procedure. After a TTE, clients can usually resume their normal activities without any specific bed rest requirements, unless otherwise specified by the healthcare provider based on individual circumstances.

C. The client's pain will be managed aggressively during the procedure: TTE is generally a painless procedure that does not require aggressive pain management. The client may feel slight discomfort from the transducer's pressure on the chest, but it is typically well tolerated without the need for pain medication.

D. The test will provide a detailed profile of the heart's electrical activity: While echocardiography provides detailed images of the heart's structure and function, including information about blood flow and valve function, it does not directly assess the heart's electrical activity. For evaluating electrical activity, other tests such as electrocardiography (ECG or EKG) would be used.


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