Pharmacology

Pharmacology

Total Questions : 72

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Question 1: View

When administering sublingual nitroglycerin for emergency treatment of angina or chest pain, the nurse monitors for which common adverse effect?

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice D: Headache.

Choice A rationale: Nausea is not a common adverse effect of sublingual nitroglycerin. Nausea may occur in some patients, but it is usually mild and transient.Nausea may be related to the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, which can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia1. Nausea may also be caused by other factors, such as anxiety, stress, or food intolerance.Nausea is not a specific indicator of nitroglycerin toxicity or overdose2.

Choice B rationale: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of sublingual nitroglycerin. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, usually defined as less than 60 beats per minute.Bradycardia may occur in some patients who take nitroglycerin, especially in combination with other drugs that affect the heart rate, such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin3. Bradycardia may also be caused by other factors, such as vagal stimulation, hypothyroidism, or electrolyte imbalance.Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of nitroglycerin toxicity or overdose2.

Choice C rationale: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of sublingual nitroglycerin. Hypertension is a high blood pressure, usually defined as more than 140/90 mmHg.Hypertension may occur in some patients who take nitroglycerin, especially in those who have a history of hypertension, renal impairment, or volume overload4. Hypertension may also be caused by other factors, such as stress, pain, or caffeine intake.Hypertension is not a specific indicator of nitroglycerin toxicity or overdose2.

Choice D rationale: Headache is a common adverse effect of sublingual nitroglycerin.Headache may occur in up to 80% of patients who take nitroglycerin, especially during the first few days of therapy or after an increase in dose5. Headache may be related to the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, which can cause cerebral vasodilation and increased intracranial pressure. Headache may also be caused by other factors, such as dehydration, sinusitis, or migraine. Headache is usually mild to moderate in intensity and can be relieved by analgesics, such as acetaminophen or aspirin.Headache is not a specific indicator of nitroglycerin toxicity or overdose


Question 2: View

The drug URECHOLINE for the management of urinary retention belongs to what class of drugs?

Explanation

Urecholine is the brand name of bethanechol, a drug that belongs to the class of cholinergics, genitourinary.

Urecholine: Package Insert - Drugs.comIt is used to treat urinary retention by stimulating the bladder to contract and empty.Urecholine can be taken orally or by injection.

Choice A is wrong because adrenergic drugs are those that activate the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the fight-or-flight response.Adrenergic drugs can cause relaxation of the bladder and urinary retention, not contraction and emptying.

Choice B is wrong because anticholinergic drugs are those that block the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that mediates the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the rest-and-digest response.Anticholinergic drugs can also cause relaxation of the bladder and urinary retention, not contraction and emptying.

Choice D is wrong because adrenergic blockers are those that inhibit the action of adrenergic receptors, which are activated by adrenergic drugs or by the natural neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine.Adrenergic blockers can have various effects on the bladder depending on the type and location of the receptors they block, but they are not used to treat urinary retention.


Question 3: View

Which of the following Alpha adrenergic class has a vasodilating effect and can be used for the management of hypertension?

Explanation

Alpha 1 adrenergic blocking agents have a vasodilating effect and can be used for the management of hypertension.They work by preventing the hormone norepinephrine from tightening the muscles in the walls of smaller arteries and veins, thus lowering the blood pressure.Some examples of alpha 1 blockers are doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin.

Choice A is wrong because alpha 3 adrenergic blockers do not exist.There are only two subtypes of alpha receptors: alpha 1 and alpha 2.

Choice B is wrong because alpha 2 adrenergic antagonists are not used for hypertension.They are used for conditions like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and opioid withdrawal.Alpha 2 antagonists block the negative feedback mechanism of norepinephrine release, thus increasing the amount of norepinephrine in the blood and raising the blood pressure.

Choice C is wrong because alpha 1 adrenergic agonists have the opposite effect of alpha 1 blockers.They stimulate the alpha 1 receptors and cause vasoconstriction, which increases the blood pressure.Alpha 1 agonists are used for conditions like nasal congestion and hypotension.


Question 4: View

Which laboratory test measures the effectiveness of warfarin?

Explanation

PT stands for prothrombin time, which is a measure of how long it takes the blood to clot.

INR stands for international normalized ratio, which is a way of standardizing the PT results across different laboratories.

Warfarin is a blood thinner that works by inhibiting the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver.

Therefore, warfarin prolongs the PT and increases the INR.The PT/INR test is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and adjust the dose accordingly.

Choice A is wrong because PTT stands for partial thromboplastin time, which is another measure of blood clotting time, but it reflects the activity of different clotting factors than PT.PTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

Choice C is wrong because aPTT stands for activated partial thromboplastin time, which is a variation of PTT that uses an activator to speed up the clotting time.Like PTT, aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

Choice D is wrong because ACT stands for activated clotting time, which is a measure of the whole blood clotting time.ACT is used to monitor high-dose heparin therapy during certain procedures, such as cardiac bypass surgery or angioplasty.

The normal ranges for these tests may vary depending on the laboratory and the method used, but generally, they are:

• PT: 10 to 13 seconds

• INR: 0.8 to 1.2 (without warfarin) or 2.0 to 3.0 (with warfarin)

• PTT: 25 to 35 seconds

• aPTT: 30 to 40 seconds

• ACT: 70 to 120 seconds


Question 5: View

Which drug class is capable of dissolving blood clots?

Explanation

Thrombolytic agents are a classification of drugs that dissolve blood clots by activating the enzyme plasmin, which breaks down the proteins (fibrins) that form clots. They are used for serious conditions, such as stroke, pulmonary embolism, or heart attack when the blood flow needs to be restored quickly.

Know What is Thrombolytic Therapy and its Uses,Side effects

Choice A is wrong because salicylates are anti-inflammatory drugs that inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are involved in inflammation and pain. They also have antiplatelet effects, but they do not dissolve existing clots.

Choice B is wrong because antiplatelets are drugs that prevent platelets from sticking together and forming clots. They are used to prevent clotting in conditions such as coronary artery disease, stroke, or peripheral arterial disease. They do not dissolve existing clots either.

Choice C is wrong because anticoagulants are drugs that prevent clots from forming by interfering with the clotting factors that are normally present in the blood.
They are used to treat or prevent conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or atrial fibrillation. They do not dissolve existing clots.
Normal ranges for clotting factors vary depending on the laboratory and the method used, but some common values are:
• Prothrombin time (PT): 11 to 13 seconds
• International normalized ratio (INR): 0.8 to 1.2
• Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 25 to 35 seconds
• Fibrinogen: 200 to 400 mg/dL
• D-dimer: less than 0.5 mcg/mL


Question 6: View

Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside that is among the oldest medications used for heart failure.
What are its two primary actions?

Explanation

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases the force of heart contractions (positive inotropy) and decreases the heart rate (negative chronotropy) by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in the cardiac cell membranes and affecting the autonomic tone.This helps to improve the symptoms of heart failure and to control the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.

Choice A is wrong because positive chronotropy means increasing the heart rate, which is the opposite of what digoxin does.

Choice B is wrong because negative inotropy means decreasing the force of heart contractions, which is also the opposite of what digoxin does.

Choice D is wrong because positive inotropy and positive chronotropy would both increase the workload of the heart, which is not desirable in heart failure or atrial fibrillation.

Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window and can cause serious side effects if overdosed or underdosed.


Question 7: View

Why is a patient who is using a transdermal nitroglycerin patch instructed to remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in the morning?

Explanation

Nitroglycerin is a medication that dilates the blood vessels and improves blood flow to the heart. It is used to treat angina, a condition that causes chest pain due to reduced oxygen supply to the heart. However, nitroglycerin can lose its effectiveness over time if it is used continuously. This is called tolerance, and it means that the patient will need higher doses of the medication to achieve the same relief. To avoid tolerance, patients who use transdermal nitroglycerin patches are instructed to remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in the morning. This creates a nitrate-free interval of about 8 to 12 hours, which allows the body to restore its sensitivity to nitroglycerin.

Choice A is wrong because an allergic response is not a common side effect of nitroglycerin. Some patients may experience skin irritation or rash at the site of application, but this is usually mild and does not require discontinuation of the medication.

Choice C is wrong because overdosage is unlikely with transdermal nitroglycerin patches. The patches deliver a controlled amount of nitroglycerin through the skin over a period of time. The risk of overdosage is higher with other forms of nitroglycerin, such as tablets or sprays, which are taken as needed for acute angina attacks.

Choice D is wrong because forgetting to remove the patch in the morning is not a serious problem. The patch will continue to deliver nitroglycerin until it is removed, but it will not cause harm to the patient. However, it may reduce the effectiveness of the next patch if there is no nitrate-free interval between them.


Question 8: View

Which drug class should not be used when a patient is taking nitrates?

Explanation

Erectile dysfunction drugs should not be used when a patient is taking nitrates.This is because both types of drugs cause blood vessels to dilate, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. This can increase the risk of heart attack, stroke or fainting.

Choice B is wrong because alpha-adrenergic blockers are sometimes used together with nitrates to treat high blood pressure and angina. They work by relaxing the smooth muscles of the blood vessels, which lowers blood pressure and improves blood flow.

Choice C is wrong because calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure and angina. They work by blocking the entry of calcium into the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, which reduces the force of contraction and relaxes the blood vessels.

Choice D is wrong because beta-adrenergic blockers are another class of drugs that can be used with nitrates to treat high blood pressure and angina. They work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels, which slows down the heart rate and lowers blood pressure.

Normal ranges for blood pressure vary depending on age, gender and other factors, but generally they are between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg for healthy adults.


Question 9: View

A nurse understands that a common reason why a patient is prescribed a combination of diuretics is because?

Explanation

Hypokalemia is a condition where the blood potassium level is too low, which can cause muscle weakness, arrhythmias, and other problems. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output and help remove excess fluid from the body. Some diuretics, such as loop diuretics, also cause potassium loss in the urine.To prevent hypokalemia, a combination of diuretics may be prescribed, such as a loop diuretic with a potassium-sparing diuretic or a thiazide diuretic. These combinations help balance the potassium level while still removing sodium and water.

Choice A is wrong because they are not a part of the initial diuretic therapy.Combination diuretic therapy is usually reserved for patients who have resistant edema or hypertension that does not respond to monotherapy.

Choice C is wrong because they do not boost the blood-pressure-lowering effect of other medications.Diuretics can lower blood pressure by reducing blood volume and relaxing blood vessels, but they are not used to enhance the effect of other antihypertensive drugs.

Choice D is wrong because they do not have fewer side effects when used in a drug combination.Combination diuretic therapy can increase the risk of electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and metabolic alkalosis.It can also cause hypotension, dehydration, and worsening renal function.Therefore, combination diuretic therapy should be used with caution and close monitoring.

Normal ranges for blood potassium level are 3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L or 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.Normal ranges for blood sodium level are 135 to 145 mmol/L or 135 to 145 mEq/L.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mm Hg for normal, 120-129/less than 80 mm Hg for elevated, 130-139/80-89 mm Hg for stage 1 hypertension, and 140 or higher/90 or higher mm Hg for stage 2 hypertension.


Question 10: View

The use of diuretics in the treatment of heart failure may lead to what condition?

Explanation

Diuretics are medicines that help the kidneys get rid of excess water and salt, which can ease the symptoms of heart failure, such as breathlessness and swelling.However, diuretics may also lower the blood pressure by reducing the blood volume and the cardiac output. This can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting.Hypotension is defined as a systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure lower than 60 mmHg.

Choice A is wrong because fluid retention is the opposite of what diuretics do. Diuretics increase the urine output and decrease the fluid accumulation in the body.

Choice C is wrong because hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hyperglycemia is a condition where the blood sugar level is too high.Diuretics may affect the blood sugar level in some cases, but usually not significantly.

Choice D is wrong because diarrhea is not a typical side effect of diuretics.

Diarrhea is a condition where the stool is loose and watery.Diuretics may cause some gastrointestinal discomfort, such as nausea or cramps, but not diarrhea.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 120/80 mmHg for systolic/diastolic in healthy adults, and 140/90 mmHg or higher for hypertension.Normal ranges for blood sugar are 70-100 mg/dL for fasting glucose, and less than 140 mg/dL for postprandial glucose.


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