35-year-old postpartum client.

Select the condition, risk factors and assessment findings that the client may be experiencing.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is []

Condition: Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)

Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss ≥ 500 mL after vaginal delivery or ≥ 1000 mL after cesarean delivery. In this case, the client has heavy bleeding, large clots, and lightheadedness, which are key indicators of excessive postpartum blood loss.

Risk Factors

1. Fetal Macrosomia: The baby weighs 9 lbs 4 oz (4196 grams), which is considered macrosomia (birth weight > 4000 g). Large fetal size increases the risk of uterine overdistension, which can impair uterine contractions and lead to uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

2. Uterine Atony: The nurse initially noted a boggy uterus that required massage to become firm. Uterine atony occurs when the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. This is the leading cause of PPH.

3. Prolonged Labor: A prolonged labor can cause uterine fatigue, reducing the uterus's ability to contract properly after delivery, thereby increasing the risk of uterine atony and PPH.

Assessment Findings

1. Heavy vaginal bleeding: The client has heavy bleeding with three quarter-sized clots, which is abnormal postpartum and indicates excessive blood loss.

2. Blood pressure: The client’s BP is 150/86 mmHg, which may indicate compensatory vasoconstriction due to ongoing blood loss. If hemorrhage continues, hypotension may develop.

3. Urine output: The client did not feel the urge to void, and catheterization drained 450 mL of urine. A full bladder can prevent proper uterine contraction, worsening uterine atony and bleeding.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "We will monitor your blood pressure to see if it decreases."
While magnesium sulfate may have a mild antihypertensive effect, it is not primarily given to lower blood pressure; antihypertensives are used for that purpose.

B. "We will check for a reduction in swelling and fluid retention."
Edema in preeclampsia is due to capillary leakage and kidney dysfunction, not directly affected by magnesium sulfate.

C. "We will assess for a decrease in seizure activity and improved reflexes."
Magnesium sulfate is used primarily as a seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia by stabilizing the central nervous system and reducing hyperreflexia and clonus, which are signs of worsening preeclampsia.

D. "You should feel less pain and have fewer headaches."
While magnesium sulfate can improve symptoms, it is not an analgesic and does not directly relieve pain.

A. Depo-Provera B. Contraceptive implant C. Combination oral contraceptives D. Barrier methods such as female condoms

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "Depo-Provera."
Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone injection) is effective for contraception, but it may worsen menstrual irregularities and cause bone density loss with long-term use, making it less ideal.

B. "Contraceptive implant."
While progestin-only implants (e.g., Nexplanon) are effective, they do not protect against STIs. Additionally, irregular bleeding is a common side effect, which may not be ideal for someone with menorrhagia and irregular cycles.

C. "Combination oral contraceptives."
Estrogen-containing contraceptives (e.g., combined oral contraceptive pills) are contraindicated in women who smoke and are ≥35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). While this client is 22 years old, smoking still makes this option less preferable.

D. "Barrier methods such as female condoms."
Barrier methods reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which is crucial for this client with multiple sexual partners. Additionally, they do not contain hormones, making them safer for smokers.

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35-year-old postpartum client. Select the condition, risk factors and assessment findings that the client may be experiencing.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The client asks, "How will I know if the medication is working?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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35-year-old postpartum client.

Select the condition, risk factors and assessment findings that the client may be experiencing.