A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department with right knee pain.
Complete the statement below:
The client is at risk for and the nurse should ?
Fracture/immobilized the extremity
Contracture / obtain a prescription for acetaminophen
Sprain/ raise the leg
Dislocation/apply heat to the area
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Considering the mechanism of injury, pain severity, tenderness, swelling, and ecchymosis, there is a high suspicion of a fracture. Immobilization is essential to prevent further injury and reduce pain.
Choice B rationale: Contracture is less likely in this acute injury scenario. Acetaminophen might manage pain, but it doesn't address the risk factor.
Choice C rationale: A sprain is less likely given the severity of pain and the mechanism of injury. Raising the leg doesn't address the risk of a suspected fracture.
Choice D rationale: Dislocation doesn't align with the reported symptoms. Applying heat could potentially worsen inflammation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Cri du chat syndrome involves a high-pitched cry in infants and other distinct physical and developmental features, but it doesn't present with the described symptoms.
Choice B rationale: Klinefelter syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY) in males, typically presents with small testicles, gynecomastia (enlarged breast tissues), sexual dysfunction, and altered body proportions, such as long legs and a shorter trunk, aligning with the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale: Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) manifests with severe developmental issues, facial abnormalities, and other physical malformations, but the described symptoms are not typically associated with this syndrome.
Choice D rationale: Turner syndrome involves females with a missing or partially missing X chromosome (45, X), resulting in specific physical features and medical problems not consistent with the described symptoms in a male client.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Hormone therapy (HT) is used to treat menopausal symptoms, not PID.
Choice B rationale: Irregularities in the menstrual cycle is not a common complications of PID.
Choice C rationale: Changes in secondary sex characteristics is not a common complications of PID.
Choice D rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs that can cause scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus. This can lead to ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, and infertility.
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