While reviewing the clinical history of a client with brain injury, the nurse finds that there is a periorbital ecchymosis, which is referred to as raccoon eyes. The client also has leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the nose. Which fracture should the nurse suspect in the client?

Depressed fracture

Basilar skull fracture

Linear fracture

Frontal fossa fracture

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: Often results from direct trauma to the skull, but not typically associated with CSF leakage or raccoon eyes.

Choice B rationale: Basilar skull fractures, particularly involving the anterior or middle fossa, can lead to CSF leakage from the nose (rhinorrhea) and periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon eyes).

Choice C rationale: A simple fracture line without displacement, less likely to cause CSF leakage and raccoon eyes.

Choice D rationale: Less commonly associated with CSF leakage and periorbital ecchymosis compared to basilar skull fractures.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale: A/V fistula assessment is not concerning because a positive bruit and thrill indicate adequate blood flow through the fistula. A dry dressing with scant amount of blood is expected after hemodialysis.

Choice B rationale: The client's low blood pressure could indicate hypotension, which can be critical, especially after hemodialysis. It may contribute to the client's reported dizziness and fatigue.

Choice C rationale: The client’s pulse is irregular which may indicate cardiac arrhythmia. Choice D rationale: Anuria, the absence of urine output, is a significant concern. It could indicate kidney dysfunction or inadequate clearance of waste products, which may have implications following hemodialysis.

Choice E rationale: Oxygen saturation at 92% is relatively low. While the client is alert and oriented, a low oxygen saturation level may indicate potential respiratory compromise or inadequate oxygenation.

Choice F rationale: Temperature is not concerning because it is within normal range.

Choice G rationale: Neurological assessment is not concerning because the client is alert and oriented. The dizziness is likely related to the hypotension and will resolve once the blood pressure is stabilized.

A. A scalp laceration oozing blood. B. Dizziness, nausea, and transient confusion. C. Headache rated "8" on a 0-10 scale. D. Serosanguineous nasal drainage.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.

Choice B rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.

Choice C rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.

Choice D rationale: Serosanguineous nasal drainage (a mixture of blood and clear fluid) may suggest a basilar skull fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the skull that can damage vital structures such as the brainstem, cranial nerves, or major blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications such as meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid leak, or hemorrhage.

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While reviewing the clinical history of a client with brain injury, the nurse finds that there is a periorbital ecchymosis, which is referred to as raccoon eyes. The client also has leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the nose. Which fracture should the nurse suspect in the client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a 67-year-old client in the medical-surgical unit following hemodialysis. The nurse reviews the nursing note, vital signs, assessment, and medical history Which clinical data is most concerning to the nurse? Select all that apply

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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