A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. An internal medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment and wash for the next four weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
Foot nevus
Tinea pedis
Foot blister
Tinea unguium
The Correct Answer is B
A. Foot nevus:
A nevus is a mole or birthmark, not a fungal infection or a cause of itching and peeling.
B. Tinea pedis:
Tinea pedis, or athlete's foot, is a fungal infection characterized by itching, burning, and peeling skin between the toes.
C. Foot blister:
A blister is a fluid-filled sac caused by friction, not fungal infection.
D. Tinea unguium:
Tinea unguium refers to fungal infection of the nails, not the skin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
A. Lung abscess:
A lung abscess is a localized pus collection from infection, not a cause of COPD.
B. Pneumothorax:
Pneumothorax is air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse, but it is not a cause of COPD.
C. Pulmonary emphysema:
Emphysema is a destruction of alveolar walls and a main component of COPD.
D. Histoplasmosis:
Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection; while it can cause chronic lung problems, it is not a classic cause of COPD.
E. Chronic asthma:
Chronic, poorly controlled asthma can lead to airway remodeling, contributing to COPD development.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A ruptured or expanding abdominal aortic aneurysm causes sudden back and abdominal pain and is more common in people with hypertension.
B. Embolus:
An embolus would cause acute blockage, usually leading to ischemia downstream, but not arterial dilation.
C. Phlebitis:
Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not an artery, and does not cause sudden severe back pain.
D. Thrombus:
A thrombus is a clot, and while it can block vessels, it does not cause local dilation of arteries.
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